Prove that an entire function with $Imfle (Ref)^2$is constant

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This is an old question from Ph.D Qualifying Exam of Complex Analysis.




Without using Picard's theorem directly, prove that if $f$ is an entire function such that $textImf(z)le (textRef(z))^2$ for all $zin mathbbC$ then $f$ is constant.




My attempt: I'd like to apply Liouville's theorem, but I can't find the entire function to apply the theorem. First I tried for $e^f^2$, but its real part becomes $e^(Ref)^2-(Imf)^2ge e^Imf-(Imf)^2$ so I failed to find the bound.



How should I do?



Thanks in advance!







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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    This is an old question from Ph.D Qualifying Exam of Complex Analysis.




    Without using Picard's theorem directly, prove that if $f$ is an entire function such that $textImf(z)le (textRef(z))^2$ for all $zin mathbbC$ then $f$ is constant.




    My attempt: I'd like to apply Liouville's theorem, but I can't find the entire function to apply the theorem. First I tried for $e^f^2$, but its real part becomes $e^(Ref)^2-(Imf)^2ge e^Imf-(Imf)^2$ so I failed to find the bound.



    How should I do?



    Thanks in advance!







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      This is an old question from Ph.D Qualifying Exam of Complex Analysis.




      Without using Picard's theorem directly, prove that if $f$ is an entire function such that $textImf(z)le (textRef(z))^2$ for all $zin mathbbC$ then $f$ is constant.




      My attempt: I'd like to apply Liouville's theorem, but I can't find the entire function to apply the theorem. First I tried for $e^f^2$, but its real part becomes $e^(Ref)^2-(Imf)^2ge e^Imf-(Imf)^2$ so I failed to find the bound.



      How should I do?



      Thanks in advance!







      share|cite|improve this question











      This is an old question from Ph.D Qualifying Exam of Complex Analysis.




      Without using Picard's theorem directly, prove that if $f$ is an entire function such that $textImf(z)le (textRef(z))^2$ for all $zin mathbbC$ then $f$ is constant.




      My attempt: I'd like to apply Liouville's theorem, but I can't find the entire function to apply the theorem. First I tried for $e^f^2$, but its real part becomes $e^(Ref)^2-(Imf)^2ge e^Imf-(Imf)^2$ so I failed to find the bound.



      How should I do?



      Thanks in advance!









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




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      asked Jul 19 at 5:04









      bellcircle

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          2 Answers
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          up vote
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          down vote



          accepted










          The image of $f$ does not intersect a disc centred at $i$. Therefore
          $zmapsto 1/(f(z)-i)$ is entire and bounded. Use Liouville.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Clever, generalizable trick. Do you know of any other good techniques for these kinds of problems?
            – Nitin
            Jul 19 at 6:07

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          One can prove more general result using Lord Shark the Unknown's argument as follows:




          If $f$ is a nonconstant entire function, then $f(mathbbC)$ is dense in $mathbbC$.




          Proof: Suppose $f(mathbbC)$ is not dense in $mathbbC$. Then there exist $z_0in mathbbC$ and $delta>0$ such that $D_delta(z_0)cap f(mathbbC)=emptyset$. Now consider the function $g(z)=dfrac1f(z)-z_0$, then $|g(z)|le dfrac1delta$ for all $zin mathbbC$ because $|f(z)-z_0|ge delta$. Therefore, $g$ is constant by Liouville's theorem, and it follows that $f$ is constant.






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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted










            The image of $f$ does not intersect a disc centred at $i$. Therefore
            $zmapsto 1/(f(z)-i)$ is entire and bounded. Use Liouville.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Clever, generalizable trick. Do you know of any other good techniques for these kinds of problems?
              – Nitin
              Jul 19 at 6:07














            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted










            The image of $f$ does not intersect a disc centred at $i$. Therefore
            $zmapsto 1/(f(z)-i)$ is entire and bounded. Use Liouville.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Clever, generalizable trick. Do you know of any other good techniques for these kinds of problems?
              – Nitin
              Jul 19 at 6:07












            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted






            The image of $f$ does not intersect a disc centred at $i$. Therefore
            $zmapsto 1/(f(z)-i)$ is entire and bounded. Use Liouville.






            share|cite|improve this answer













            The image of $f$ does not intersect a disc centred at $i$. Therefore
            $zmapsto 1/(f(z)-i)$ is entire and bounded. Use Liouville.







            share|cite|improve this answer













            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer











            answered Jul 19 at 5:14









            Lord Shark the Unknown

            85.5k951112




            85.5k951112











            • Clever, generalizable trick. Do you know of any other good techniques for these kinds of problems?
              – Nitin
              Jul 19 at 6:07
















            • Clever, generalizable trick. Do you know of any other good techniques for these kinds of problems?
              – Nitin
              Jul 19 at 6:07















            Clever, generalizable trick. Do you know of any other good techniques for these kinds of problems?
            – Nitin
            Jul 19 at 6:07




            Clever, generalizable trick. Do you know of any other good techniques for these kinds of problems?
            – Nitin
            Jul 19 at 6:07










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            One can prove more general result using Lord Shark the Unknown's argument as follows:




            If $f$ is a nonconstant entire function, then $f(mathbbC)$ is dense in $mathbbC$.




            Proof: Suppose $f(mathbbC)$ is not dense in $mathbbC$. Then there exist $z_0in mathbbC$ and $delta>0$ such that $D_delta(z_0)cap f(mathbbC)=emptyset$. Now consider the function $g(z)=dfrac1f(z)-z_0$, then $|g(z)|le dfrac1delta$ for all $zin mathbbC$ because $|f(z)-z_0|ge delta$. Therefore, $g$ is constant by Liouville's theorem, and it follows that $f$ is constant.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              One can prove more general result using Lord Shark the Unknown's argument as follows:




              If $f$ is a nonconstant entire function, then $f(mathbbC)$ is dense in $mathbbC$.




              Proof: Suppose $f(mathbbC)$ is not dense in $mathbbC$. Then there exist $z_0in mathbbC$ and $delta>0$ such that $D_delta(z_0)cap f(mathbbC)=emptyset$. Now consider the function $g(z)=dfrac1f(z)-z_0$, then $|g(z)|le dfrac1delta$ for all $zin mathbbC$ because $|f(z)-z_0|ge delta$. Therefore, $g$ is constant by Liouville's theorem, and it follows that $f$ is constant.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                One can prove more general result using Lord Shark the Unknown's argument as follows:




                If $f$ is a nonconstant entire function, then $f(mathbbC)$ is dense in $mathbbC$.




                Proof: Suppose $f(mathbbC)$ is not dense in $mathbbC$. Then there exist $z_0in mathbbC$ and $delta>0$ such that $D_delta(z_0)cap f(mathbbC)=emptyset$. Now consider the function $g(z)=dfrac1f(z)-z_0$, then $|g(z)|le dfrac1delta$ for all $zin mathbbC$ because $|f(z)-z_0|ge delta$. Therefore, $g$ is constant by Liouville's theorem, and it follows that $f$ is constant.






                share|cite|improve this answer













                One can prove more general result using Lord Shark the Unknown's argument as follows:




                If $f$ is a nonconstant entire function, then $f(mathbbC)$ is dense in $mathbbC$.




                Proof: Suppose $f(mathbbC)$ is not dense in $mathbbC$. Then there exist $z_0in mathbbC$ and $delta>0$ such that $D_delta(z_0)cap f(mathbbC)=emptyset$. Now consider the function $g(z)=dfrac1f(z)-z_0$, then $|g(z)|le dfrac1delta$ for all $zin mathbbC$ because $|f(z)-z_0|ge delta$. Therefore, $g$ is constant by Liouville's theorem, and it follows that $f$ is constant.







                share|cite|improve this answer













                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer











                answered Jul 26 at 8:35









                bellcircle

                1,123311




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