Prove that the Extension Theorem is Complete.

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
0
down vote

favorite













Prove that the probability triple $(Omega, mathcalM, mathbbP^*) $ constructed from the Extension Theorem is complete.




Specifically, this problem asks us to show that, given any $A subseteq Omega$, such that $A in mathcalM$ and $ mathbbP^* (A)=0$, and any $B subseteq A$, then $$ mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) = mathbbP^*(E).$$



The proof of this theorem posted below seemed fairly straightforward, but there are two issues (one of which has been previously asked by another user, without answer), which make me doubt it.



The text I am reading writes that, from this result, it follows $B$ has outer measure $0$, i.e.:
$$B in mathcalM implies mathbbP^*(B)=0,$$ but doesn’t that result follow regardless of whether $B$ is in $mathcalM$ or not?



The other issue is that the following proof does not seem to make use of the fact that $$A in mathcalM.$$



In fact, it seems we could rewrite the definition of a complete probability triple as follows:



Definition: If $A subseteq Omega$, such that $$mathbbP^*(A)=0,$$ then $$S(A) in mathcalM,$$ where $S(A)$ is the set of all subsets of $A$.



Proof:



By the monitonicity of outer measure, for any $E subseteq Omega$, $$mathbbP^*(B cap E) leq mathbbP^*(A cap E).$$



Further, since $(A cap E) subseteq A$, $$mathbbP^*(B cap E)=0. qquad (1)$$



Clearly, $(B^c cap E) subseteq E$, which implies $$mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) leq mathbbP^*(E).qquad (2)$$



Putting $(1)$ and $(2)$ together $$mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) leq mathbbP^*(E).$$



Since outer measure is also subadditive: $$ mathbbP^*(E) leq
mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E).$$



Thus $mathbbP^*$ is additive on the union $B cap E$ and $B^c cap E$, for all subsets $E$ of $Omega$, from which we conclude $B in mathcalM$.



$square$







share|cite|improve this question

























    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite













    Prove that the probability triple $(Omega, mathcalM, mathbbP^*) $ constructed from the Extension Theorem is complete.




    Specifically, this problem asks us to show that, given any $A subseteq Omega$, such that $A in mathcalM$ and $ mathbbP^* (A)=0$, and any $B subseteq A$, then $$ mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) = mathbbP^*(E).$$



    The proof of this theorem posted below seemed fairly straightforward, but there are two issues (one of which has been previously asked by another user, without answer), which make me doubt it.



    The text I am reading writes that, from this result, it follows $B$ has outer measure $0$, i.e.:
    $$B in mathcalM implies mathbbP^*(B)=0,$$ but doesn’t that result follow regardless of whether $B$ is in $mathcalM$ or not?



    The other issue is that the following proof does not seem to make use of the fact that $$A in mathcalM.$$



    In fact, it seems we could rewrite the definition of a complete probability triple as follows:



    Definition: If $A subseteq Omega$, such that $$mathbbP^*(A)=0,$$ then $$S(A) in mathcalM,$$ where $S(A)$ is the set of all subsets of $A$.



    Proof:



    By the monitonicity of outer measure, for any $E subseteq Omega$, $$mathbbP^*(B cap E) leq mathbbP^*(A cap E).$$



    Further, since $(A cap E) subseteq A$, $$mathbbP^*(B cap E)=0. qquad (1)$$



    Clearly, $(B^c cap E) subseteq E$, which implies $$mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) leq mathbbP^*(E).qquad (2)$$



    Putting $(1)$ and $(2)$ together $$mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) leq mathbbP^*(E).$$



    Since outer measure is also subadditive: $$ mathbbP^*(E) leq
    mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E).$$



    Thus $mathbbP^*$ is additive on the union $B cap E$ and $B^c cap E$, for all subsets $E$ of $Omega$, from which we conclude $B in mathcalM$.



    $square$







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite












      Prove that the probability triple $(Omega, mathcalM, mathbbP^*) $ constructed from the Extension Theorem is complete.




      Specifically, this problem asks us to show that, given any $A subseteq Omega$, such that $A in mathcalM$ and $ mathbbP^* (A)=0$, and any $B subseteq A$, then $$ mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) = mathbbP^*(E).$$



      The proof of this theorem posted below seemed fairly straightforward, but there are two issues (one of which has been previously asked by another user, without answer), which make me doubt it.



      The text I am reading writes that, from this result, it follows $B$ has outer measure $0$, i.e.:
      $$B in mathcalM implies mathbbP^*(B)=0,$$ but doesn’t that result follow regardless of whether $B$ is in $mathcalM$ or not?



      The other issue is that the following proof does not seem to make use of the fact that $$A in mathcalM.$$



      In fact, it seems we could rewrite the definition of a complete probability triple as follows:



      Definition: If $A subseteq Omega$, such that $$mathbbP^*(A)=0,$$ then $$S(A) in mathcalM,$$ where $S(A)$ is the set of all subsets of $A$.



      Proof:



      By the monitonicity of outer measure, for any $E subseteq Omega$, $$mathbbP^*(B cap E) leq mathbbP^*(A cap E).$$



      Further, since $(A cap E) subseteq A$, $$mathbbP^*(B cap E)=0. qquad (1)$$



      Clearly, $(B^c cap E) subseteq E$, which implies $$mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) leq mathbbP^*(E).qquad (2)$$



      Putting $(1)$ and $(2)$ together $$mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) leq mathbbP^*(E).$$



      Since outer measure is also subadditive: $$ mathbbP^*(E) leq
      mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E).$$



      Thus $mathbbP^*$ is additive on the union $B cap E$ and $B^c cap E$, for all subsets $E$ of $Omega$, from which we conclude $B in mathcalM$.



      $square$







      share|cite|improve this question














      Prove that the probability triple $(Omega, mathcalM, mathbbP^*) $ constructed from the Extension Theorem is complete.




      Specifically, this problem asks us to show that, given any $A subseteq Omega$, such that $A in mathcalM$ and $ mathbbP^* (A)=0$, and any $B subseteq A$, then $$ mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) = mathbbP^*(E).$$



      The proof of this theorem posted below seemed fairly straightforward, but there are two issues (one of which has been previously asked by another user, without answer), which make me doubt it.



      The text I am reading writes that, from this result, it follows $B$ has outer measure $0$, i.e.:
      $$B in mathcalM implies mathbbP^*(B)=0,$$ but doesn’t that result follow regardless of whether $B$ is in $mathcalM$ or not?



      The other issue is that the following proof does not seem to make use of the fact that $$A in mathcalM.$$



      In fact, it seems we could rewrite the definition of a complete probability triple as follows:



      Definition: If $A subseteq Omega$, such that $$mathbbP^*(A)=0,$$ then $$S(A) in mathcalM,$$ where $S(A)$ is the set of all subsets of $A$.



      Proof:



      By the monitonicity of outer measure, for any $E subseteq Omega$, $$mathbbP^*(B cap E) leq mathbbP^*(A cap E).$$



      Further, since $(A cap E) subseteq A$, $$mathbbP^*(B cap E)=0. qquad (1)$$



      Clearly, $(B^c cap E) subseteq E$, which implies $$mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) leq mathbbP^*(E).qquad (2)$$



      Putting $(1)$ and $(2)$ together $$mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E) leq mathbbP^*(E).$$



      Since outer measure is also subadditive: $$ mathbbP^*(E) leq
      mathbbP^*(B cap E) + mathbbP^*(B^c cap E).$$



      Thus $mathbbP^*$ is additive on the union $B cap E$ and $B^c cap E$, for all subsets $E$ of $Omega$, from which we conclude $B in mathcalM$.



      $square$









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 24 at 7:51
























      asked Jul 24 at 7:28









      Moed Pol Bollo

      19318




      19318




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Any set $A$ with $P^*(A)=0$ is measurable. The condition $A in mathcal M$ is not necessary.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Okay, well that’s good. Is there any reason why it was included in the question, then?
            – Moed Pol Bollo
            Jul 24 at 7:50






          • 1




            They were just trying state completeness of $P^*$ restricted to the class of measurable sets. This restriction is the main object of interest in analysis. Outer measure is only a tool in the study of measures.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jul 24 at 7:57










          Your Answer




          StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
          return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
          StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
          StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
          );
          );
          , "mathjax-editing");

          StackExchange.ready(function()
          var channelOptions =
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "69"
          ;
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
          createEditor();
          );

          else
          createEditor();

          );

          function createEditor()
          StackExchange.prepareEditor(
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          convertImagesToLinks: true,
          noModals: false,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: 10,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          );



          );








           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2861088%2fprove-that-the-extension-theorem-is-complete%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest






























          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Any set $A$ with $P^*(A)=0$ is measurable. The condition $A in mathcal M$ is not necessary.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Okay, well that’s good. Is there any reason why it was included in the question, then?
            – Moed Pol Bollo
            Jul 24 at 7:50






          • 1




            They were just trying state completeness of $P^*$ restricted to the class of measurable sets. This restriction is the main object of interest in analysis. Outer measure is only a tool in the study of measures.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jul 24 at 7:57














          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Any set $A$ with $P^*(A)=0$ is measurable. The condition $A in mathcal M$ is not necessary.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Okay, well that’s good. Is there any reason why it was included in the question, then?
            – Moed Pol Bollo
            Jul 24 at 7:50






          • 1




            They were just trying state completeness of $P^*$ restricted to the class of measurable sets. This restriction is the main object of interest in analysis. Outer measure is only a tool in the study of measures.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jul 24 at 7:57












          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          Any set $A$ with $P^*(A)=0$ is measurable. The condition $A in mathcal M$ is not necessary.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Any set $A$ with $P^*(A)=0$ is measurable. The condition $A in mathcal M$ is not necessary.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 24 at 7:38









          Kavi Rama Murthy

          20.2k2829




          20.2k2829











          • Okay, well that’s good. Is there any reason why it was included in the question, then?
            – Moed Pol Bollo
            Jul 24 at 7:50






          • 1




            They were just trying state completeness of $P^*$ restricted to the class of measurable sets. This restriction is the main object of interest in analysis. Outer measure is only a tool in the study of measures.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jul 24 at 7:57
















          • Okay, well that’s good. Is there any reason why it was included in the question, then?
            – Moed Pol Bollo
            Jul 24 at 7:50






          • 1




            They were just trying state completeness of $P^*$ restricted to the class of measurable sets. This restriction is the main object of interest in analysis. Outer measure is only a tool in the study of measures.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jul 24 at 7:57















          Okay, well that’s good. Is there any reason why it was included in the question, then?
          – Moed Pol Bollo
          Jul 24 at 7:50




          Okay, well that’s good. Is there any reason why it was included in the question, then?
          – Moed Pol Bollo
          Jul 24 at 7:50




          1




          1




          They were just trying state completeness of $P^*$ restricted to the class of measurable sets. This restriction is the main object of interest in analysis. Outer measure is only a tool in the study of measures.
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jul 24 at 7:57




          They were just trying state completeness of $P^*$ restricted to the class of measurable sets. This restriction is the main object of interest in analysis. Outer measure is only a tool in the study of measures.
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jul 24 at 7:57












           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


























           


          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2861088%2fprove-that-the-extension-theorem-is-complete%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest













































































          Comments

          Popular posts from this blog

          What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

          Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

          Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?