Prove that a sequence converges

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I am a little insecure about my proof because the book provide a longer one, can you check it? Thanks in advance




Let $Isubseteq mathbbR$ be an interval and $f,f_n$ functions from I to $mathbbR$ for $ninmathbbN$ such that $(f_n)$ uniformly converges to $f$.
Let $t_0 in I$ such that for every $n$ exists $l_n=lim_tto t_0f_n(t)$.
Prove that $(l_n)$ converges.




Let $epsilon >0$ and $n,m in mathbbN$; we have $|l_n-l_m|=|lim_t to t_0(f_n(t)-f_m(t))|=lim_t to t_0|f_n(t)-f_m(t)| le lim_t to t_0epsilon=epsilon$ if $n, m$ are sufficiently large because $(f_n)$ is uniformly convergent. So $(l_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence and therefore it converges.







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  • @KaviRamaMurthy I'm not sure of what you are saying, what if you take $f_n=f$ with f discontinuous in $t_0$? For example $f: [0,1] to mathbbR, x to 1_1(x)$ and $t_0 = 1$
    – user
    Jul 20 at 7:46






  • 1




    The proof is correct.
    – Paul Frost
    Jul 20 at 9:53






  • 1




    A mathematician would say "OK" but a marker on an exam for an elementary course might demand some more detail.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 20 at 14:55






  • 1




    @user. $l_n$ does not necessarily converge to $f(t_0)$.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 20 at 14:58














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I am a little insecure about my proof because the book provide a longer one, can you check it? Thanks in advance




Let $Isubseteq mathbbR$ be an interval and $f,f_n$ functions from I to $mathbbR$ for $ninmathbbN$ such that $(f_n)$ uniformly converges to $f$.
Let $t_0 in I$ such that for every $n$ exists $l_n=lim_tto t_0f_n(t)$.
Prove that $(l_n)$ converges.




Let $epsilon >0$ and $n,m in mathbbN$; we have $|l_n-l_m|=|lim_t to t_0(f_n(t)-f_m(t))|=lim_t to t_0|f_n(t)-f_m(t)| le lim_t to t_0epsilon=epsilon$ if $n, m$ are sufficiently large because $(f_n)$ is uniformly convergent. So $(l_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence and therefore it converges.







share|cite|improve this question



















  • @KaviRamaMurthy I'm not sure of what you are saying, what if you take $f_n=f$ with f discontinuous in $t_0$? For example $f: [0,1] to mathbbR, x to 1_1(x)$ and $t_0 = 1$
    – user
    Jul 20 at 7:46






  • 1




    The proof is correct.
    – Paul Frost
    Jul 20 at 9:53






  • 1




    A mathematician would say "OK" but a marker on an exam for an elementary course might demand some more detail.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 20 at 14:55






  • 1




    @user. $l_n$ does not necessarily converge to $f(t_0)$.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 20 at 14:58












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I am a little insecure about my proof because the book provide a longer one, can you check it? Thanks in advance




Let $Isubseteq mathbbR$ be an interval and $f,f_n$ functions from I to $mathbbR$ for $ninmathbbN$ such that $(f_n)$ uniformly converges to $f$.
Let $t_0 in I$ such that for every $n$ exists $l_n=lim_tto t_0f_n(t)$.
Prove that $(l_n)$ converges.




Let $epsilon >0$ and $n,m in mathbbN$; we have $|l_n-l_m|=|lim_t to t_0(f_n(t)-f_m(t))|=lim_t to t_0|f_n(t)-f_m(t)| le lim_t to t_0epsilon=epsilon$ if $n, m$ are sufficiently large because $(f_n)$ is uniformly convergent. So $(l_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence and therefore it converges.







share|cite|improve this question











I am a little insecure about my proof because the book provide a longer one, can you check it? Thanks in advance




Let $Isubseteq mathbbR$ be an interval and $f,f_n$ functions from I to $mathbbR$ for $ninmathbbN$ such that $(f_n)$ uniformly converges to $f$.
Let $t_0 in I$ such that for every $n$ exists $l_n=lim_tto t_0f_n(t)$.
Prove that $(l_n)$ converges.




Let $epsilon >0$ and $n,m in mathbbN$; we have $|l_n-l_m|=|lim_t to t_0(f_n(t)-f_m(t))|=lim_t to t_0|f_n(t)-f_m(t)| le lim_t to t_0epsilon=epsilon$ if $n, m$ are sufficiently large because $(f_n)$ is uniformly convergent. So $(l_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence and therefore it converges.









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 20 at 7:16









user

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  • @KaviRamaMurthy I'm not sure of what you are saying, what if you take $f_n=f$ with f discontinuous in $t_0$? For example $f: [0,1] to mathbbR, x to 1_1(x)$ and $t_0 = 1$
    – user
    Jul 20 at 7:46






  • 1




    The proof is correct.
    – Paul Frost
    Jul 20 at 9:53






  • 1




    A mathematician would say "OK" but a marker on an exam for an elementary course might demand some more detail.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 20 at 14:55






  • 1




    @user. $l_n$ does not necessarily converge to $f(t_0)$.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 20 at 14:58
















  • @KaviRamaMurthy I'm not sure of what you are saying, what if you take $f_n=f$ with f discontinuous in $t_0$? For example $f: [0,1] to mathbbR, x to 1_1(x)$ and $t_0 = 1$
    – user
    Jul 20 at 7:46






  • 1




    The proof is correct.
    – Paul Frost
    Jul 20 at 9:53






  • 1




    A mathematician would say "OK" but a marker on an exam for an elementary course might demand some more detail.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 20 at 14:55






  • 1




    @user. $l_n$ does not necessarily converge to $f(t_0)$.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 20 at 14:58















@KaviRamaMurthy I'm not sure of what you are saying, what if you take $f_n=f$ with f discontinuous in $t_0$? For example $f: [0,1] to mathbbR, x to 1_1(x)$ and $t_0 = 1$
– user
Jul 20 at 7:46




@KaviRamaMurthy I'm not sure of what you are saying, what if you take $f_n=f$ with f discontinuous in $t_0$? For example $f: [0,1] to mathbbR, x to 1_1(x)$ and $t_0 = 1$
– user
Jul 20 at 7:46




1




1




The proof is correct.
– Paul Frost
Jul 20 at 9:53




The proof is correct.
– Paul Frost
Jul 20 at 9:53




1




1




A mathematician would say "OK" but a marker on an exam for an elementary course might demand some more detail.
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 20 at 14:55




A mathematician would say "OK" but a marker on an exam for an elementary course might demand some more detail.
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 20 at 14:55




1




1




@user. $l_n$ does not necessarily converge to $f(t_0)$.
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 20 at 14:58




@user. $l_n$ does not necessarily converge to $f(t_0)$.
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 20 at 14:58















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