What is the condition to have a Lipschitz continuous the gradient for convex function?

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According to Prof. Vandenberg's lecture notes [http://www.seas.ucla.edu/~vandenbe/236C/lectures/gradient.pdf], page 11, a function is called Lipschitz continuous gradient when
$$
|nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
$$
Note that the definition does not assume that $f$ is a convex function.



However, if $f$ is a convex function we have
$$
f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
$$



Can we prove the reverse, i.e., if we have



$$
f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
$$
then
$$
|nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
$$



Hint: using $
f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
$ we can conclude that $g(x)=fracalpha2|x|_2^2-f(x)$ is convex. Since $g(x)$ is convex, monotonicity of the gradient of $g$ results in



$$
langle nabla f(x) - f(y),y-x rangle leq alpha|y-x|_2^2
$$
but how is possible to get back to the following?
$$
|nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
$$
I am wondering if the above method is right way to prove it. In addition, is there any other condition that can be applied to the convex function $f(x)$ to have Lipschitz continuous gradient?







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    up vote
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    down vote

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    According to Prof. Vandenberg's lecture notes [http://www.seas.ucla.edu/~vandenbe/236C/lectures/gradient.pdf], page 11, a function is called Lipschitz continuous gradient when
    $$
    |nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
    $$
    Note that the definition does not assume that $f$ is a convex function.



    However, if $f$ is a convex function we have
    $$
    f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
    $$



    Can we prove the reverse, i.e., if we have



    $$
    f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
    $$
    then
    $$
    |nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
    $$



    Hint: using $
    f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
    $ we can conclude that $g(x)=fracalpha2|x|_2^2-f(x)$ is convex. Since $g(x)$ is convex, monotonicity of the gradient of $g$ results in



    $$
    langle nabla f(x) - f(y),y-x rangle leq alpha|y-x|_2^2
    $$
    but how is possible to get back to the following?
    $$
    |nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
    $$
    I am wondering if the above method is right way to prove it. In addition, is there any other condition that can be applied to the convex function $f(x)$ to have Lipschitz continuous gradient?







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
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      down vote

      favorite











      According to Prof. Vandenberg's lecture notes [http://www.seas.ucla.edu/~vandenbe/236C/lectures/gradient.pdf], page 11, a function is called Lipschitz continuous gradient when
      $$
      |nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
      $$
      Note that the definition does not assume that $f$ is a convex function.



      However, if $f$ is a convex function we have
      $$
      f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
      $$



      Can we prove the reverse, i.e., if we have



      $$
      f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
      $$
      then
      $$
      |nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
      $$



      Hint: using $
      f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
      $ we can conclude that $g(x)=fracalpha2|x|_2^2-f(x)$ is convex. Since $g(x)$ is convex, monotonicity of the gradient of $g$ results in



      $$
      langle nabla f(x) - f(y),y-x rangle leq alpha|y-x|_2^2
      $$
      but how is possible to get back to the following?
      $$
      |nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
      $$
      I am wondering if the above method is right way to prove it. In addition, is there any other condition that can be applied to the convex function $f(x)$ to have Lipschitz continuous gradient?







      share|cite|improve this question











      According to Prof. Vandenberg's lecture notes [http://www.seas.ucla.edu/~vandenbe/236C/lectures/gradient.pdf], page 11, a function is called Lipschitz continuous gradient when
      $$
      |nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
      $$
      Note that the definition does not assume that $f$ is a convex function.



      However, if $f$ is a convex function we have
      $$
      f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
      $$



      Can we prove the reverse, i.e., if we have



      $$
      f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
      $$
      then
      $$
      |nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
      $$



      Hint: using $
      f(y) leq f(x) + langle nabla f(x),y-x rangle + fracalpha2|y-x|_2^2
      $ we can conclude that $g(x)=fracalpha2|x|_2^2-f(x)$ is convex. Since $g(x)$ is convex, monotonicity of the gradient of $g$ results in



      $$
      langle nabla f(x) - f(y),y-x rangle leq alpha|y-x|_2^2
      $$
      but how is possible to get back to the following?
      $$
      |nabla f(y)-nabla f(x)|_2 leq alpha|y-x|_2
      $$
      I am wondering if the above method is right way to prove it. In addition, is there any other condition that can be applied to the convex function $f(x)$ to have Lipschitz continuous gradient?









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      asked Jul 18 at 20:47









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          No. Intuitively, a function is Lipschitz means that the derivative is continuous. (It's a bit stronger, even.) Consider the function $f:mathbbRrightarrowmathbbR$ such that $f(x)=|x|$. This function is convex, but its derivative is not continuous, therefore it is not Lipschitz.






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            No. Intuitively, a function is Lipschitz means that the derivative is continuous. (It's a bit stronger, even.) Consider the function $f:mathbbRrightarrowmathbbR$ such that $f(x)=|x|$. This function is convex, but its derivative is not continuous, therefore it is not Lipschitz.






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              No. Intuitively, a function is Lipschitz means that the derivative is continuous. (It's a bit stronger, even.) Consider the function $f:mathbbRrightarrowmathbbR$ such that $f(x)=|x|$. This function is convex, but its derivative is not continuous, therefore it is not Lipschitz.






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                up vote
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                No. Intuitively, a function is Lipschitz means that the derivative is continuous. (It's a bit stronger, even.) Consider the function $f:mathbbRrightarrowmathbbR$ such that $f(x)=|x|$. This function is convex, but its derivative is not continuous, therefore it is not Lipschitz.






                share|cite|improve this answer













                No. Intuitively, a function is Lipschitz means that the derivative is continuous. (It's a bit stronger, even.) Consider the function $f:mathbbRrightarrowmathbbR$ such that $f(x)=|x|$. This function is convex, but its derivative is not continuous, therefore it is not Lipschitz.







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                answered Jul 18 at 20:52









                NicNic8

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