Conditions to obtain a real logarithm of a unitary unimodular complex matrix?

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The problem statement is the following:



$$U=expiV$$



where $U$ is a unitary unimodular matrix of the following form:



$$U=beginbmatrixu_1+iu_2&u_3+iu_4\-u_3+iu_4&u_1-iu_2endbmatrixinmathbbC^2times2$$



with



$$u_1^2+u_2^2+u_3^2+u_4^2=1, u_jinmathbbR forall jin1,...,4$$



and where $VinmathbbR^2times2$, and $i$ is the imaginary unit.



I am looking for solutions $VinmathbbR^2times2$ of this problem. What conditions, in general, must be fulfilled for the logarithm of $U$ to be a real matrix i.e.:



$$-ilogU=VinmathbbR^2times2$$







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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite
    1












    The problem statement is the following:



    $$U=expiV$$



    where $U$ is a unitary unimodular matrix of the following form:



    $$U=beginbmatrixu_1+iu_2&u_3+iu_4\-u_3+iu_4&u_1-iu_2endbmatrixinmathbbC^2times2$$



    with



    $$u_1^2+u_2^2+u_3^2+u_4^2=1, u_jinmathbbR forall jin1,...,4$$



    and where $VinmathbbR^2times2$, and $i$ is the imaginary unit.



    I am looking for solutions $VinmathbbR^2times2$ of this problem. What conditions, in general, must be fulfilled for the logarithm of $U$ to be a real matrix i.e.:



    $$-ilogU=VinmathbbR^2times2$$







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      The problem statement is the following:



      $$U=expiV$$



      where $U$ is a unitary unimodular matrix of the following form:



      $$U=beginbmatrixu_1+iu_2&u_3+iu_4\-u_3+iu_4&u_1-iu_2endbmatrixinmathbbC^2times2$$



      with



      $$u_1^2+u_2^2+u_3^2+u_4^2=1, u_jinmathbbR forall jin1,...,4$$



      and where $VinmathbbR^2times2$, and $i$ is the imaginary unit.



      I am looking for solutions $VinmathbbR^2times2$ of this problem. What conditions, in general, must be fulfilled for the logarithm of $U$ to be a real matrix i.e.:



      $$-ilogU=VinmathbbR^2times2$$







      share|cite|improve this question











      The problem statement is the following:



      $$U=expiV$$



      where $U$ is a unitary unimodular matrix of the following form:



      $$U=beginbmatrixu_1+iu_2&u_3+iu_4\-u_3+iu_4&u_1-iu_2endbmatrixinmathbbC^2times2$$



      with



      $$u_1^2+u_2^2+u_3^2+u_4^2=1, u_jinmathbbR forall jin1,...,4$$



      and where $VinmathbbR^2times2$, and $i$ is the imaginary unit.



      I am looking for solutions $VinmathbbR^2times2$ of this problem. What conditions, in general, must be fulfilled for the logarithm of $U$ to be a real matrix i.e.:



      $$-ilogU=VinmathbbR^2times2$$









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Jul 17 at 8:47









      john melon

      472312




      472312




















          1 Answer
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          The conditions are $det(U)=1,U^*=U^-1$ and $U=e^iV$ where $V$ is real.



          Then $overlineU=e^-iV=U^-1=U^*$, that is $U=U^T$. Then, necessarily $u_3=0$.



          Conversely, assume that $u_3=0$. We may use the principal log when $U$ has no $leq 0$ eigenvalues, that is here when $-1notin spectrum(U)$, that is when $u_1not= -1$. Then $-ilog(U)$ is a real solution in the form $beginpmatrixr&p\p&-rendpmatrix$ (symmetric as $U$ and with zero trace).



          If $u_1=-1$, then the other $u_i$ are $0$ and $U=-I_2$. We cannot no more use the principal log; yet a real solution is $V=pi I_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you for your response. Why do the other $u_i$ have to be zero in the case when $u_1=-1$?
            – john melon
            Jul 18 at 13:01










          • because $sum_i u_i^2=1$.
            – loup blanc
            Jul 18 at 13:12










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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          The conditions are $det(U)=1,U^*=U^-1$ and $U=e^iV$ where $V$ is real.



          Then $overlineU=e^-iV=U^-1=U^*$, that is $U=U^T$. Then, necessarily $u_3=0$.



          Conversely, assume that $u_3=0$. We may use the principal log when $U$ has no $leq 0$ eigenvalues, that is here when $-1notin spectrum(U)$, that is when $u_1not= -1$. Then $-ilog(U)$ is a real solution in the form $beginpmatrixr&p\p&-rendpmatrix$ (symmetric as $U$ and with zero trace).



          If $u_1=-1$, then the other $u_i$ are $0$ and $U=-I_2$. We cannot no more use the principal log; yet a real solution is $V=pi I_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you for your response. Why do the other $u_i$ have to be zero in the case when $u_1=-1$?
            – john melon
            Jul 18 at 13:01










          • because $sum_i u_i^2=1$.
            – loup blanc
            Jul 18 at 13:12














          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          The conditions are $det(U)=1,U^*=U^-1$ and $U=e^iV$ where $V$ is real.



          Then $overlineU=e^-iV=U^-1=U^*$, that is $U=U^T$. Then, necessarily $u_3=0$.



          Conversely, assume that $u_3=0$. We may use the principal log when $U$ has no $leq 0$ eigenvalues, that is here when $-1notin spectrum(U)$, that is when $u_1not= -1$. Then $-ilog(U)$ is a real solution in the form $beginpmatrixr&p\p&-rendpmatrix$ (symmetric as $U$ and with zero trace).



          If $u_1=-1$, then the other $u_i$ are $0$ and $U=-I_2$. We cannot no more use the principal log; yet a real solution is $V=pi I_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you for your response. Why do the other $u_i$ have to be zero in the case when $u_1=-1$?
            – john melon
            Jul 18 at 13:01










          • because $sum_i u_i^2=1$.
            – loup blanc
            Jul 18 at 13:12












          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          The conditions are $det(U)=1,U^*=U^-1$ and $U=e^iV$ where $V$ is real.



          Then $overlineU=e^-iV=U^-1=U^*$, that is $U=U^T$. Then, necessarily $u_3=0$.



          Conversely, assume that $u_3=0$. We may use the principal log when $U$ has no $leq 0$ eigenvalues, that is here when $-1notin spectrum(U)$, that is when $u_1not= -1$. Then $-ilog(U)$ is a real solution in the form $beginpmatrixr&p\p&-rendpmatrix$ (symmetric as $U$ and with zero trace).



          If $u_1=-1$, then the other $u_i$ are $0$ and $U=-I_2$. We cannot no more use the principal log; yet a real solution is $V=pi I_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          The conditions are $det(U)=1,U^*=U^-1$ and $U=e^iV$ where $V$ is real.



          Then $overlineU=e^-iV=U^-1=U^*$, that is $U=U^T$. Then, necessarily $u_3=0$.



          Conversely, assume that $u_3=0$. We may use the principal log when $U$ has no $leq 0$ eigenvalues, that is here when $-1notin spectrum(U)$, that is when $u_1not= -1$. Then $-ilog(U)$ is a real solution in the form $beginpmatrixr&p\p&-rendpmatrix$ (symmetric as $U$ and with zero trace).



          If $u_1=-1$, then the other $u_i$ are $0$ and $U=-I_2$. We cannot no more use the principal log; yet a real solution is $V=pi I_2$.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 18 at 10:34









          loup blanc

          20.3k21549




          20.3k21549











          • Thank you for your response. Why do the other $u_i$ have to be zero in the case when $u_1=-1$?
            – john melon
            Jul 18 at 13:01










          • because $sum_i u_i^2=1$.
            – loup blanc
            Jul 18 at 13:12
















          • Thank you for your response. Why do the other $u_i$ have to be zero in the case when $u_1=-1$?
            – john melon
            Jul 18 at 13:01










          • because $sum_i u_i^2=1$.
            – loup blanc
            Jul 18 at 13:12















          Thank you for your response. Why do the other $u_i$ have to be zero in the case when $u_1=-1$?
          – john melon
          Jul 18 at 13:01




          Thank you for your response. Why do the other $u_i$ have to be zero in the case when $u_1=-1$?
          – john melon
          Jul 18 at 13:01












          because $sum_i u_i^2=1$.
          – loup blanc
          Jul 18 at 13:12




          because $sum_i u_i^2=1$.
          – loup blanc
          Jul 18 at 13:12












           

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