monotone real analytic function

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Suppose the function $f:[a,b]rightarrow mathbbR$ is real analytic and monotonically increasing, i.e. for all $x,yin [a,b]$ such that $x<y$ we have $f(x)leq f(y)$. Further, suppose that $f$ is non constant (for example suppose $f(x)<f(b)$ for all $x<b$). I am wondering if the function has to be strictly increasing due to the assumptions. First I tried to find a counterexample, but all examples I could think of failed to be analytic at some point.



I would be very happy if someone can provide me a counterexample, or can help me proving that $f$ has to be strictly increasing.







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    Suppose the function $f:[a,b]rightarrow mathbbR$ is real analytic and monotonically increasing, i.e. for all $x,yin [a,b]$ such that $x<y$ we have $f(x)leq f(y)$. Further, suppose that $f$ is non constant (for example suppose $f(x)<f(b)$ for all $x<b$). I am wondering if the function has to be strictly increasing due to the assumptions. First I tried to find a counterexample, but all examples I could think of failed to be analytic at some point.



    I would be very happy if someone can provide me a counterexample, or can help me proving that $f$ has to be strictly increasing.







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Suppose the function $f:[a,b]rightarrow mathbbR$ is real analytic and monotonically increasing, i.e. for all $x,yin [a,b]$ such that $x<y$ we have $f(x)leq f(y)$. Further, suppose that $f$ is non constant (for example suppose $f(x)<f(b)$ for all $x<b$). I am wondering if the function has to be strictly increasing due to the assumptions. First I tried to find a counterexample, but all examples I could think of failed to be analytic at some point.



      I would be very happy if someone can provide me a counterexample, or can help me proving that $f$ has to be strictly increasing.







      share|cite|improve this question











      Suppose the function $f:[a,b]rightarrow mathbbR$ is real analytic and monotonically increasing, i.e. for all $x,yin [a,b]$ such that $x<y$ we have $f(x)leq f(y)$. Further, suppose that $f$ is non constant (for example suppose $f(x)<f(b)$ for all $x<b$). I am wondering if the function has to be strictly increasing due to the assumptions. First I tried to find a counterexample, but all examples I could think of failed to be analytic at some point.



      I would be very happy if someone can provide me a counterexample, or can help me proving that $f$ has to be strictly increasing.









      share|cite|improve this question










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      asked Jul 16 at 17:12









      Oliver Watt

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      30217




















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          Yes, $f$ must be strictly increasing. If $x<y$ and $f(x)=f(y)$ then $f$ is constant on $[x,y]$ and hence $f$ is constant, since it's analytic.



          Details for readers new to real-analytic functions: You can get that last bit in either of two ways. (i) note that $f$ extends to a function holomorphic in some neighborhood of $(a,b)$ in $Bbb C$, (ii) repeat the proof for holomorphic functions: Let $A$ be the set of points in $[a,b]$ where every derivative of $f$ vanishes; show that $A$ is open and closed, hence $A=(a,b)$ or $A=emptyset$..






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            1 Answer
            1






            active

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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

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            active

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            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Yes, $f$ must be strictly increasing. If $x<y$ and $f(x)=f(y)$ then $f$ is constant on $[x,y]$ and hence $f$ is constant, since it's analytic.



            Details for readers new to real-analytic functions: You can get that last bit in either of two ways. (i) note that $f$ extends to a function holomorphic in some neighborhood of $(a,b)$ in $Bbb C$, (ii) repeat the proof for holomorphic functions: Let $A$ be the set of points in $[a,b]$ where every derivative of $f$ vanishes; show that $A$ is open and closed, hence $A=(a,b)$ or $A=emptyset$..






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              Yes, $f$ must be strictly increasing. If $x<y$ and $f(x)=f(y)$ then $f$ is constant on $[x,y]$ and hence $f$ is constant, since it's analytic.



              Details for readers new to real-analytic functions: You can get that last bit in either of two ways. (i) note that $f$ extends to a function holomorphic in some neighborhood of $(a,b)$ in $Bbb C$, (ii) repeat the proof for holomorphic functions: Let $A$ be the set of points in $[a,b]$ where every derivative of $f$ vanishes; show that $A$ is open and closed, hence $A=(a,b)$ or $A=emptyset$..






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted






                Yes, $f$ must be strictly increasing. If $x<y$ and $f(x)=f(y)$ then $f$ is constant on $[x,y]$ and hence $f$ is constant, since it's analytic.



                Details for readers new to real-analytic functions: You can get that last bit in either of two ways. (i) note that $f$ extends to a function holomorphic in some neighborhood of $(a,b)$ in $Bbb C$, (ii) repeat the proof for holomorphic functions: Let $A$ be the set of points in $[a,b]$ where every derivative of $f$ vanishes; show that $A$ is open and closed, hence $A=(a,b)$ or $A=emptyset$..






                share|cite|improve this answer















                Yes, $f$ must be strictly increasing. If $x<y$ and $f(x)=f(y)$ then $f$ is constant on $[x,y]$ and hence $f$ is constant, since it's analytic.



                Details for readers new to real-analytic functions: You can get that last bit in either of two ways. (i) note that $f$ extends to a function holomorphic in some neighborhood of $(a,b)$ in $Bbb C$, (ii) repeat the proof for holomorphic functions: Let $A$ be the set of points in $[a,b]$ where every derivative of $f$ vanishes; show that $A$ is open and closed, hence $A=(a,b)$ or $A=emptyset$..







                share|cite|improve this answer















                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Jul 16 at 17:28


























                answered Jul 16 at 17:17









                David C. Ullrich

                54.3k33583




                54.3k33583






















                     

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