Convergence of the series $sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n$.

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up vote
1
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Show that $$sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n$$ converges for every $x>1$.




let $a(x)$ be the sum of the series. does $a$ continious at $x=2$? differentiable?



I guess the first part is with leibniz but I am not sure about it.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • What convergence tests do you know? Since this summand is a simple ratio, there is an "obvious" choice for a test to try.
    – Eric Towers
    Jul 16 at 17:59














up vote
1
down vote

favorite













Show that $$sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n$$ converges for every $x>1$.




let $a(x)$ be the sum of the series. does $a$ continious at $x=2$? differentiable?



I guess the first part is with leibniz but I am not sure about it.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • What convergence tests do you know? Since this summand is a simple ratio, there is an "obvious" choice for a test to try.
    – Eric Towers
    Jul 16 at 17:59












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Show that $$sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n$$ converges for every $x>1$.




let $a(x)$ be the sum of the series. does $a$ continious at $x=2$? differentiable?



I guess the first part is with leibniz but I am not sure about it.







share|cite|improve this question














Show that $$sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n$$ converges for every $x>1$.




let $a(x)$ be the sum of the series. does $a$ continious at $x=2$? differentiable?



I guess the first part is with leibniz but I am not sure about it.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 16 at 19:14









Nosrati

19.8k41644




19.8k41644









asked Jul 16 at 17:53









UltimateMath

385




385











  • What convergence tests do you know? Since this summand is a simple ratio, there is an "obvious" choice for a test to try.
    – Eric Towers
    Jul 16 at 17:59
















  • What convergence tests do you know? Since this summand is a simple ratio, there is an "obvious" choice for a test to try.
    – Eric Towers
    Jul 16 at 17:59















What convergence tests do you know? Since this summand is a simple ratio, there is an "obvious" choice for a test to try.
– Eric Towers
Jul 16 at 17:59




What convergence tests do you know? Since this summand is a simple ratio, there is an "obvious" choice for a test to try.
– Eric Towers
Jul 16 at 17:59










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










Hint:



Use the geometric series:



$$a(x) = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n = frac1xleft(1+frac1xright) = frac1x+1$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • why there is 1/x before the series?
    – UltimateMath
    Jul 16 at 18:31











  • @UltimateMath $$sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n = frac1xsum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n-1 = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n$$
    – mechanodroid
    Jul 16 at 18:39

















up vote
1
down vote













Using root test
$$lim_ntoinftysqrt[n]dfrac(-1)^nx^nright=dfrac1<1$$
then the series is converge for $|x|>1$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • let a(x) be the sum of the series. does a continious at x=2? differentiable? any clue?
    – UltimateMath
    Jul 16 at 18:03










  • Clearly according to other answer, in $|x|>1$, the series converges to $dfrac1x+1$ which is continous and differentiable as well.
    – Nosrati
    Jul 16 at 18:05

















up vote
0
down vote













Hint:



What if you use the ratio test?$$lim_ntoinfty|dfraca_n+1a_n|$$






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Let's look at the
    partial sums,
    and let $y = -1/x$
    so
    $-1 < y < 0$..



    $beginarray\
    s_m(y)
    &=sum_n=1^m (-1)^n-1(-y)^n\
    &=sum_n=1^m (-1)^n-1(-1)^ny^n\
    &=-sum_n=1^m y^n\
    &=-ysum_n=0^m-1 y^n\
    &=-ydfrac1-y^m1-y\
    &=dfrac-y1-y-dfrac-y^m+11-y\
    endarray
    $



    so



    $beginarray\
    s_m(y)+dfracy1-y
    &=dfracy^m+11-y\
    endarray
    $



    Therefore
    $sum_n=1^m frac(-1)^n-1x^n+dfrac-1/x1+1/x
    =dfrac1(-x)^m+1(1+1/x)
    $
    or
    $sum_n=1^m frac(-1)^n-1x^n-dfrac1x+1
    =dfrac(-1)^m+1x^m(x+1)
    $.



    What is needed now is
    to show that
    $lim_m to infty dfrac1x^m(x+1)
    =0$.



    (This is from
    "What is Mathematics")



    Since $x > 1$,
    $x = 1+z$
    where $z > 0$.



    By Bernoulli's inequality,
    $x^m
    =(1+z)^m
    ge 1+mz
    gt mz
    =m(x-1)$,
    so
    $ dfrac1x^m(x+1)
    lt dfrac1m(x-1)(x+1)
    =dfrac1m(x^2-1)
    $,
    so to make
    $dfrac1x^m(x+1)
    lt epsilon
    $
    it is enough to take
    $m
    gt dfrac1epsilon(x^2-1)
    $.



    This is certainly
    not the best $m$,
    but it is
    completely elementary.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      Hint:



      Use the geometric series:



      $$a(x) = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n = frac1xleft(1+frac1xright) = frac1x+1$$






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • why there is 1/x before the series?
        – UltimateMath
        Jul 16 at 18:31











      • @UltimateMath $$sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n = frac1xsum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n-1 = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n$$
        – mechanodroid
        Jul 16 at 18:39














      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      Hint:



      Use the geometric series:



      $$a(x) = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n = frac1xleft(1+frac1xright) = frac1x+1$$






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • why there is 1/x before the series?
        – UltimateMath
        Jul 16 at 18:31











      • @UltimateMath $$sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n = frac1xsum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n-1 = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n$$
        – mechanodroid
        Jul 16 at 18:39












      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted






      Hint:



      Use the geometric series:



      $$a(x) = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n = frac1xleft(1+frac1xright) = frac1x+1$$






      share|cite|improve this answer













      Hint:



      Use the geometric series:



      $$a(x) = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n = frac1xleft(1+frac1xright) = frac1x+1$$







      share|cite|improve this answer













      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer











      answered Jul 16 at 17:59









      mechanodroid

      22.3k52041




      22.3k52041











      • why there is 1/x before the series?
        – UltimateMath
        Jul 16 at 18:31











      • @UltimateMath $$sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n = frac1xsum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n-1 = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n$$
        – mechanodroid
        Jul 16 at 18:39
















      • why there is 1/x before the series?
        – UltimateMath
        Jul 16 at 18:31











      • @UltimateMath $$sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n = frac1xsum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n-1 = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n$$
        – mechanodroid
        Jul 16 at 18:39















      why there is 1/x before the series?
      – UltimateMath
      Jul 16 at 18:31





      why there is 1/x before the series?
      – UltimateMath
      Jul 16 at 18:31













      @UltimateMath $$sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n = frac1xsum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n-1 = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n$$
      – mechanodroid
      Jul 16 at 18:39




      @UltimateMath $$sum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n = frac1xsum_n=1^infty frac(-1)^n-1x^n-1 = frac1xsum_n=0^infty frac(-1)^nx^n$$
      – mechanodroid
      Jul 16 at 18:39










      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Using root test
      $$lim_ntoinftysqrt[n]dfrac(-1)^nx^nright=dfrac1<1$$
      then the series is converge for $|x|>1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • let a(x) be the sum of the series. does a continious at x=2? differentiable? any clue?
        – UltimateMath
        Jul 16 at 18:03










      • Clearly according to other answer, in $|x|>1$, the series converges to $dfrac1x+1$ which is continous and differentiable as well.
        – Nosrati
        Jul 16 at 18:05














      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Using root test
      $$lim_ntoinftysqrt[n]dfrac(-1)^nx^nright=dfrac1<1$$
      then the series is converge for $|x|>1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • let a(x) be the sum of the series. does a continious at x=2? differentiable? any clue?
        – UltimateMath
        Jul 16 at 18:03










      • Clearly according to other answer, in $|x|>1$, the series converges to $dfrac1x+1$ which is continous and differentiable as well.
        – Nosrati
        Jul 16 at 18:05












      up vote
      1
      down vote










      up vote
      1
      down vote









      Using root test
      $$lim_ntoinftysqrt[n]dfrac(-1)^nx^nright=dfrac1<1$$
      then the series is converge for $|x|>1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer













      Using root test
      $$lim_ntoinftysqrt[n]dfrac(-1)^nx^nright=dfrac1<1$$
      then the series is converge for $|x|>1$.







      share|cite|improve this answer













      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer











      answered Jul 16 at 18:00









      Nosrati

      19.8k41644




      19.8k41644











      • let a(x) be the sum of the series. does a continious at x=2? differentiable? any clue?
        – UltimateMath
        Jul 16 at 18:03










      • Clearly according to other answer, in $|x|>1$, the series converges to $dfrac1x+1$ which is continous and differentiable as well.
        – Nosrati
        Jul 16 at 18:05
















      • let a(x) be the sum of the series. does a continious at x=2? differentiable? any clue?
        – UltimateMath
        Jul 16 at 18:03










      • Clearly according to other answer, in $|x|>1$, the series converges to $dfrac1x+1$ which is continous and differentiable as well.
        – Nosrati
        Jul 16 at 18:05















      let a(x) be the sum of the series. does a continious at x=2? differentiable? any clue?
      – UltimateMath
      Jul 16 at 18:03




      let a(x) be the sum of the series. does a continious at x=2? differentiable? any clue?
      – UltimateMath
      Jul 16 at 18:03












      Clearly according to other answer, in $|x|>1$, the series converges to $dfrac1x+1$ which is continous and differentiable as well.
      – Nosrati
      Jul 16 at 18:05




      Clearly according to other answer, in $|x|>1$, the series converges to $dfrac1x+1$ which is continous and differentiable as well.
      – Nosrati
      Jul 16 at 18:05










      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Hint:



      What if you use the ratio test?$$lim_ntoinfty|dfraca_n+1a_n|$$






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        Hint:



        What if you use the ratio test?$$lim_ntoinfty|dfraca_n+1a_n|$$






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          Hint:



          What if you use the ratio test?$$lim_ntoinfty|dfraca_n+1a_n|$$






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Hint:



          What if you use the ratio test?$$lim_ntoinfty|dfraca_n+1a_n|$$







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 16 at 18:03









          Mostafa Ayaz

          8,6023630




          8,6023630




















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Let's look at the
              partial sums,
              and let $y = -1/x$
              so
              $-1 < y < 0$..



              $beginarray\
              s_m(y)
              &=sum_n=1^m (-1)^n-1(-y)^n\
              &=sum_n=1^m (-1)^n-1(-1)^ny^n\
              &=-sum_n=1^m y^n\
              &=-ysum_n=0^m-1 y^n\
              &=-ydfrac1-y^m1-y\
              &=dfrac-y1-y-dfrac-y^m+11-y\
              endarray
              $



              so



              $beginarray\
              s_m(y)+dfracy1-y
              &=dfracy^m+11-y\
              endarray
              $



              Therefore
              $sum_n=1^m frac(-1)^n-1x^n+dfrac-1/x1+1/x
              =dfrac1(-x)^m+1(1+1/x)
              $
              or
              $sum_n=1^m frac(-1)^n-1x^n-dfrac1x+1
              =dfrac(-1)^m+1x^m(x+1)
              $.



              What is needed now is
              to show that
              $lim_m to infty dfrac1x^m(x+1)
              =0$.



              (This is from
              "What is Mathematics")



              Since $x > 1$,
              $x = 1+z$
              where $z > 0$.



              By Bernoulli's inequality,
              $x^m
              =(1+z)^m
              ge 1+mz
              gt mz
              =m(x-1)$,
              so
              $ dfrac1x^m(x+1)
              lt dfrac1m(x-1)(x+1)
              =dfrac1m(x^2-1)
              $,
              so to make
              $dfrac1x^m(x+1)
              lt epsilon
              $
              it is enough to take
              $m
              gt dfrac1epsilon(x^2-1)
              $.



              This is certainly
              not the best $m$,
              but it is
              completely elementary.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                Let's look at the
                partial sums,
                and let $y = -1/x$
                so
                $-1 < y < 0$..



                $beginarray\
                s_m(y)
                &=sum_n=1^m (-1)^n-1(-y)^n\
                &=sum_n=1^m (-1)^n-1(-1)^ny^n\
                &=-sum_n=1^m y^n\
                &=-ysum_n=0^m-1 y^n\
                &=-ydfrac1-y^m1-y\
                &=dfrac-y1-y-dfrac-y^m+11-y\
                endarray
                $



                so



                $beginarray\
                s_m(y)+dfracy1-y
                &=dfracy^m+11-y\
                endarray
                $



                Therefore
                $sum_n=1^m frac(-1)^n-1x^n+dfrac-1/x1+1/x
                =dfrac1(-x)^m+1(1+1/x)
                $
                or
                $sum_n=1^m frac(-1)^n-1x^n-dfrac1x+1
                =dfrac(-1)^m+1x^m(x+1)
                $.



                What is needed now is
                to show that
                $lim_m to infty dfrac1x^m(x+1)
                =0$.



                (This is from
                "What is Mathematics")



                Since $x > 1$,
                $x = 1+z$
                where $z > 0$.



                By Bernoulli's inequality,
                $x^m
                =(1+z)^m
                ge 1+mz
                gt mz
                =m(x-1)$,
                so
                $ dfrac1x^m(x+1)
                lt dfrac1m(x-1)(x+1)
                =dfrac1m(x^2-1)
                $,
                so to make
                $dfrac1x^m(x+1)
                lt epsilon
                $
                it is enough to take
                $m
                gt dfrac1epsilon(x^2-1)
                $.



                This is certainly
                not the best $m$,
                but it is
                completely elementary.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  Let's look at the
                  partial sums,
                  and let $y = -1/x$
                  so
                  $-1 < y < 0$..



                  $beginarray\
                  s_m(y)
                  &=sum_n=1^m (-1)^n-1(-y)^n\
                  &=sum_n=1^m (-1)^n-1(-1)^ny^n\
                  &=-sum_n=1^m y^n\
                  &=-ysum_n=0^m-1 y^n\
                  &=-ydfrac1-y^m1-y\
                  &=dfrac-y1-y-dfrac-y^m+11-y\
                  endarray
                  $



                  so



                  $beginarray\
                  s_m(y)+dfracy1-y
                  &=dfracy^m+11-y\
                  endarray
                  $



                  Therefore
                  $sum_n=1^m frac(-1)^n-1x^n+dfrac-1/x1+1/x
                  =dfrac1(-x)^m+1(1+1/x)
                  $
                  or
                  $sum_n=1^m frac(-1)^n-1x^n-dfrac1x+1
                  =dfrac(-1)^m+1x^m(x+1)
                  $.



                  What is needed now is
                  to show that
                  $lim_m to infty dfrac1x^m(x+1)
                  =0$.



                  (This is from
                  "What is Mathematics")



                  Since $x > 1$,
                  $x = 1+z$
                  where $z > 0$.



                  By Bernoulli's inequality,
                  $x^m
                  =(1+z)^m
                  ge 1+mz
                  gt mz
                  =m(x-1)$,
                  so
                  $ dfrac1x^m(x+1)
                  lt dfrac1m(x-1)(x+1)
                  =dfrac1m(x^2-1)
                  $,
                  so to make
                  $dfrac1x^m(x+1)
                  lt epsilon
                  $
                  it is enough to take
                  $m
                  gt dfrac1epsilon(x^2-1)
                  $.



                  This is certainly
                  not the best $m$,
                  but it is
                  completely elementary.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  Let's look at the
                  partial sums,
                  and let $y = -1/x$
                  so
                  $-1 < y < 0$..



                  $beginarray\
                  s_m(y)
                  &=sum_n=1^m (-1)^n-1(-y)^n\
                  &=sum_n=1^m (-1)^n-1(-1)^ny^n\
                  &=-sum_n=1^m y^n\
                  &=-ysum_n=0^m-1 y^n\
                  &=-ydfrac1-y^m1-y\
                  &=dfrac-y1-y-dfrac-y^m+11-y\
                  endarray
                  $



                  so



                  $beginarray\
                  s_m(y)+dfracy1-y
                  &=dfracy^m+11-y\
                  endarray
                  $



                  Therefore
                  $sum_n=1^m frac(-1)^n-1x^n+dfrac-1/x1+1/x
                  =dfrac1(-x)^m+1(1+1/x)
                  $
                  or
                  $sum_n=1^m frac(-1)^n-1x^n-dfrac1x+1
                  =dfrac(-1)^m+1x^m(x+1)
                  $.



                  What is needed now is
                  to show that
                  $lim_m to infty dfrac1x^m(x+1)
                  =0$.



                  (This is from
                  "What is Mathematics")



                  Since $x > 1$,
                  $x = 1+z$
                  where $z > 0$.



                  By Bernoulli's inequality,
                  $x^m
                  =(1+z)^m
                  ge 1+mz
                  gt mz
                  =m(x-1)$,
                  so
                  $ dfrac1x^m(x+1)
                  lt dfrac1m(x-1)(x+1)
                  =dfrac1m(x^2-1)
                  $,
                  so to make
                  $dfrac1x^m(x+1)
                  lt epsilon
                  $
                  it is enough to take
                  $m
                  gt dfrac1epsilon(x^2-1)
                  $.



                  This is certainly
                  not the best $m$,
                  but it is
                  completely elementary.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Jul 16 at 20:19









                  marty cohen

                  69.3k446122




                  69.3k446122






















                       

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