If $f(T)g(T)=0$ and $V_1=g(T)(V)$, $V_2=f(T)(V)$ proof that $V=V_1oplus V_2$

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












$Bbb K$ is a field, $V$ and let $T:Vlongrightarrow V$ be a linear map.
$Bbb K[x]$ is the vector space of the polynomials over $Bbb K$.



Suppose that



$f,gin Bbb K[x]$, $f(T)g(T)=0$, $V_1=g(T)(V)$ $ $ and $V_2=f(T)(V) space$; then prove that $$V=V_1oplus V_2$$ and that $V_1$ and $V_2 $are $T-$invariant.



This is what i got so far:



if $$uin V_1cap V_2 Rightarrow u=f(T)(v_1)=g(T)(v_2)$$
$$f(T)(u)=f(T)f(T)(v_1)=f(T)g(T)(v_2)=0$$



I'm trying to proof that the intersection is equal to 0, and than i would proof $forall v in V ;v=v_1+v_2$ with $v_1in V_1 wedge v_2in V_2$



but i wasn't able to do more than that, so if you have any idea, i would be glad to hear it.







share|cite|improve this question

























    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    $Bbb K$ is a field, $V$ and let $T:Vlongrightarrow V$ be a linear map.
    $Bbb K[x]$ is the vector space of the polynomials over $Bbb K$.



    Suppose that



    $f,gin Bbb K[x]$, $f(T)g(T)=0$, $V_1=g(T)(V)$ $ $ and $V_2=f(T)(V) space$; then prove that $$V=V_1oplus V_2$$ and that $V_1$ and $V_2 $are $T-$invariant.



    This is what i got so far:



    if $$uin V_1cap V_2 Rightarrow u=f(T)(v_1)=g(T)(v_2)$$
    $$f(T)(u)=f(T)f(T)(v_1)=f(T)g(T)(v_2)=0$$



    I'm trying to proof that the intersection is equal to 0, and than i would proof $forall v in V ;v=v_1+v_2$ with $v_1in V_1 wedge v_2in V_2$



    but i wasn't able to do more than that, so if you have any idea, i would be glad to hear it.







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      $Bbb K$ is a field, $V$ and let $T:Vlongrightarrow V$ be a linear map.
      $Bbb K[x]$ is the vector space of the polynomials over $Bbb K$.



      Suppose that



      $f,gin Bbb K[x]$, $f(T)g(T)=0$, $V_1=g(T)(V)$ $ $ and $V_2=f(T)(V) space$; then prove that $$V=V_1oplus V_2$$ and that $V_1$ and $V_2 $are $T-$invariant.



      This is what i got so far:



      if $$uin V_1cap V_2 Rightarrow u=f(T)(v_1)=g(T)(v_2)$$
      $$f(T)(u)=f(T)f(T)(v_1)=f(T)g(T)(v_2)=0$$



      I'm trying to proof that the intersection is equal to 0, and than i would proof $forall v in V ;v=v_1+v_2$ with $v_1in V_1 wedge v_2in V_2$



      but i wasn't able to do more than that, so if you have any idea, i would be glad to hear it.







      share|cite|improve this question













      $Bbb K$ is a field, $V$ and let $T:Vlongrightarrow V$ be a linear map.
      $Bbb K[x]$ is the vector space of the polynomials over $Bbb K$.



      Suppose that



      $f,gin Bbb K[x]$, $f(T)g(T)=0$, $V_1=g(T)(V)$ $ $ and $V_2=f(T)(V) space$; then prove that $$V=V_1oplus V_2$$ and that $V_1$ and $V_2 $are $T-$invariant.



      This is what i got so far:



      if $$uin V_1cap V_2 Rightarrow u=f(T)(v_1)=g(T)(v_2)$$
      $$f(T)(u)=f(T)f(T)(v_1)=f(T)g(T)(v_2)=0$$



      I'm trying to proof that the intersection is equal to 0, and than i would proof $forall v in V ;v=v_1+v_2$ with $v_1in V_1 wedge v_2in V_2$



      but i wasn't able to do more than that, so if you have any idea, i would be glad to hear it.









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 16 at 17:21









      Legoman

      4,65421033




      4,65421033









      asked Jul 16 at 15:46









      Jonatas Teo

      31




      31




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          This is not true as stated. For example, if $f=g$ then $V_1=V_2$, in which case we certainly cannot have $V=V_1oplus V_2$ (unless $V=0$, in which case everything equals $0$...)



          It is true if $f$ and $g$ have no common factor. In that case, since the polynomials over a field form a PID there exist polynomials $p$ and $q$ with $$f(t)p(t)+g(t)q(t)=1.$$So $f(T)p(T)+g(T)q(T)=I$, hence for every $xin V$ we have $$x=f(T)(p(T)x)=g(T)(q(T)x)in V_1+V_2.$$Now suppose $xin V_1cap V_2$, so $x=p(T)v=g(T)w$. Then $$x=f(T)p(T)g(T)v+g(T)q(T)f(T)w=f(T)g(T)(p(T)v+q(T)w)=0.$$



          (Note here that if $r$ and $s$ are polynomials it's clear that $r(T)s(T)=s(T)r(T)$.)






          share|cite|improve this answer























            Your Answer




            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            );
            );
            , "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function()
            var channelOptions =
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            ;
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
            createEditor();
            );

            else
            createEditor();

            );

            function createEditor()
            StackExchange.prepareEditor(
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: false,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            );



            );








             

            draft saved


            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2853524%2fif-ftgt-0-and-v-1-gtv-v-2-ftv-proof-that-v-v-1-oplus-v-2%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest






























            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            0
            down vote



            accepted










            This is not true as stated. For example, if $f=g$ then $V_1=V_2$, in which case we certainly cannot have $V=V_1oplus V_2$ (unless $V=0$, in which case everything equals $0$...)



            It is true if $f$ and $g$ have no common factor. In that case, since the polynomials over a field form a PID there exist polynomials $p$ and $q$ with $$f(t)p(t)+g(t)q(t)=1.$$So $f(T)p(T)+g(T)q(T)=I$, hence for every $xin V$ we have $$x=f(T)(p(T)x)=g(T)(q(T)x)in V_1+V_2.$$Now suppose $xin V_1cap V_2$, so $x=p(T)v=g(T)w$. Then $$x=f(T)p(T)g(T)v+g(T)q(T)f(T)w=f(T)g(T)(p(T)v+q(T)w)=0.$$



            (Note here that if $r$ and $s$ are polynomials it's clear that $r(T)s(T)=s(T)r(T)$.)






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              0
              down vote



              accepted










              This is not true as stated. For example, if $f=g$ then $V_1=V_2$, in which case we certainly cannot have $V=V_1oplus V_2$ (unless $V=0$, in which case everything equals $0$...)



              It is true if $f$ and $g$ have no common factor. In that case, since the polynomials over a field form a PID there exist polynomials $p$ and $q$ with $$f(t)p(t)+g(t)q(t)=1.$$So $f(T)p(T)+g(T)q(T)=I$, hence for every $xin V$ we have $$x=f(T)(p(T)x)=g(T)(q(T)x)in V_1+V_2.$$Now suppose $xin V_1cap V_2$, so $x=p(T)v=g(T)w$. Then $$x=f(T)p(T)g(T)v+g(T)q(T)f(T)w=f(T)g(T)(p(T)v+q(T)w)=0.$$



              (Note here that if $r$ and $s$ are polynomials it's clear that $r(T)s(T)=s(T)r(T)$.)






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                0
                down vote



                accepted






                This is not true as stated. For example, if $f=g$ then $V_1=V_2$, in which case we certainly cannot have $V=V_1oplus V_2$ (unless $V=0$, in which case everything equals $0$...)



                It is true if $f$ and $g$ have no common factor. In that case, since the polynomials over a field form a PID there exist polynomials $p$ and $q$ with $$f(t)p(t)+g(t)q(t)=1.$$So $f(T)p(T)+g(T)q(T)=I$, hence for every $xin V$ we have $$x=f(T)(p(T)x)=g(T)(q(T)x)in V_1+V_2.$$Now suppose $xin V_1cap V_2$, so $x=p(T)v=g(T)w$. Then $$x=f(T)p(T)g(T)v+g(T)q(T)f(T)w=f(T)g(T)(p(T)v+q(T)w)=0.$$



                (Note here that if $r$ and $s$ are polynomials it's clear that $r(T)s(T)=s(T)r(T)$.)






                share|cite|improve this answer















                This is not true as stated. For example, if $f=g$ then $V_1=V_2$, in which case we certainly cannot have $V=V_1oplus V_2$ (unless $V=0$, in which case everything equals $0$...)



                It is true if $f$ and $g$ have no common factor. In that case, since the polynomials over a field form a PID there exist polynomials $p$ and $q$ with $$f(t)p(t)+g(t)q(t)=1.$$So $f(T)p(T)+g(T)q(T)=I$, hence for every $xin V$ we have $$x=f(T)(p(T)x)=g(T)(q(T)x)in V_1+V_2.$$Now suppose $xin V_1cap V_2$, so $x=p(T)v=g(T)w$. Then $$x=f(T)p(T)g(T)v+g(T)q(T)f(T)w=f(T)g(T)(p(T)v+q(T)w)=0.$$



                (Note here that if $r$ and $s$ are polynomials it's clear that $r(T)s(T)=s(T)r(T)$.)







                share|cite|improve this answer















                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Jul 16 at 17:51


























                answered Jul 16 at 16:07









                David C. Ullrich

                54.3k33583




                54.3k33583






















                     

                    draft saved


                    draft discarded


























                     


                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function ()
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2853524%2fif-ftgt-0-and-v-1-gtv-v-2-ftv-proof-that-v-v-1-oplus-v-2%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                    );

                    Post as a guest













































































                    Comments

                    Popular posts from this blog

                    What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

                    Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?

                    Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon