Tensor product of linear maps

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Let $phi:Urightarrow X$ and $psi:Vrightarrow Y$ be linear maps. Then we have $phiotimes psi:Uotimes Vrightarrow Xotimes Y$. The following (1 to 4) are all clear:



  1. $kerleft(phiright)otimeskerleft(psiright)leqkerleft(phiotimespsiright)$

  2. $textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)leqtextrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$

and if $U=X$ and $V=Y$



  1. $E_lambdaleft(phiright)otimes E_muleft(psiright)leq E_lambdamuleft(phiotimespsiright)$

and if $dimleft(Uright)=n$ and $dimleft(Vright)=m$



  1. $chi_phiotimespsi=chi_phi^mchi_psi^n
    $

Where $E_lambdaleft(phiright)=kerleft(phi-lambda Iright)$ is the eigenspace, and $chi_phileft(xright)=detleft(phi-x Iright)$ is the characteristic polynomial.



The question then is which if any of these ought to hold in some reverse form. For instance, do we have $$kerleft(phiright)otimeskerleft(psiright)=kerleft(phiotimespsiright)$$ or $$textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)=textrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$$



Futhermore, for the minimal polynomials $m_phiotimespsi$, $m_phi$ and $m_psi$, is there a relation between $m_phiotimespsi$ and $m_phi^mm_psi^n$ like we have for the characteristic polynomials? Essentially, do the properties of the constituent maps entirely determine the properties for the tensor-product map?







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    Let $phi:Urightarrow X$ and $psi:Vrightarrow Y$ be linear maps. Then we have $phiotimes psi:Uotimes Vrightarrow Xotimes Y$. The following (1 to 4) are all clear:



    1. $kerleft(phiright)otimeskerleft(psiright)leqkerleft(phiotimespsiright)$

    2. $textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)leqtextrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$

    and if $U=X$ and $V=Y$



    1. $E_lambdaleft(phiright)otimes E_muleft(psiright)leq E_lambdamuleft(phiotimespsiright)$

    and if $dimleft(Uright)=n$ and $dimleft(Vright)=m$



    1. $chi_phiotimespsi=chi_phi^mchi_psi^n
      $

    Where $E_lambdaleft(phiright)=kerleft(phi-lambda Iright)$ is the eigenspace, and $chi_phileft(xright)=detleft(phi-x Iright)$ is the characteristic polynomial.



    The question then is which if any of these ought to hold in some reverse form. For instance, do we have $$kerleft(phiright)otimeskerleft(psiright)=kerleft(phiotimespsiright)$$ or $$textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)=textrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$$



    Futhermore, for the minimal polynomials $m_phiotimespsi$, $m_phi$ and $m_psi$, is there a relation between $m_phiotimespsi$ and $m_phi^mm_psi^n$ like we have for the characteristic polynomials? Essentially, do the properties of the constituent maps entirely determine the properties for the tensor-product map?







    share|cite|improve this question





















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      up vote
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      Let $phi:Urightarrow X$ and $psi:Vrightarrow Y$ be linear maps. Then we have $phiotimes psi:Uotimes Vrightarrow Xotimes Y$. The following (1 to 4) are all clear:



      1. $kerleft(phiright)otimeskerleft(psiright)leqkerleft(phiotimespsiright)$

      2. $textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)leqtextrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$

      and if $U=X$ and $V=Y$



      1. $E_lambdaleft(phiright)otimes E_muleft(psiright)leq E_lambdamuleft(phiotimespsiright)$

      and if $dimleft(Uright)=n$ and $dimleft(Vright)=m$



      1. $chi_phiotimespsi=chi_phi^mchi_psi^n
        $

      Where $E_lambdaleft(phiright)=kerleft(phi-lambda Iright)$ is the eigenspace, and $chi_phileft(xright)=detleft(phi-x Iright)$ is the characteristic polynomial.



      The question then is which if any of these ought to hold in some reverse form. For instance, do we have $$kerleft(phiright)otimeskerleft(psiright)=kerleft(phiotimespsiright)$$ or $$textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)=textrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$$



      Futhermore, for the minimal polynomials $m_phiotimespsi$, $m_phi$ and $m_psi$, is there a relation between $m_phiotimespsi$ and $m_phi^mm_psi^n$ like we have for the characteristic polynomials? Essentially, do the properties of the constituent maps entirely determine the properties for the tensor-product map?







      share|cite|improve this question











      Let $phi:Urightarrow X$ and $psi:Vrightarrow Y$ be linear maps. Then we have $phiotimes psi:Uotimes Vrightarrow Xotimes Y$. The following (1 to 4) are all clear:



      1. $kerleft(phiright)otimeskerleft(psiright)leqkerleft(phiotimespsiright)$

      2. $textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)leqtextrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$

      and if $U=X$ and $V=Y$



      1. $E_lambdaleft(phiright)otimes E_muleft(psiright)leq E_lambdamuleft(phiotimespsiright)$

      and if $dimleft(Uright)=n$ and $dimleft(Vright)=m$



      1. $chi_phiotimespsi=chi_phi^mchi_psi^n
        $

      Where $E_lambdaleft(phiright)=kerleft(phi-lambda Iright)$ is the eigenspace, and $chi_phileft(xright)=detleft(phi-x Iright)$ is the characteristic polynomial.



      The question then is which if any of these ought to hold in some reverse form. For instance, do we have $$kerleft(phiright)otimeskerleft(psiright)=kerleft(phiotimespsiright)$$ or $$textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)=textrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$$



      Futhermore, for the minimal polynomials $m_phiotimespsi$, $m_phi$ and $m_psi$, is there a relation between $m_phiotimespsi$ and $m_phi^mm_psi^n$ like we have for the characteristic polynomials? Essentially, do the properties of the constituent maps entirely determine the properties for the tensor-product map?









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      asked Jul 16 at 17:26









      Joshua Tilley

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          In general, you won't have the first of these, since
          $$kerphiotimes V+Uotimeskerpsisubseteqker(phiotimespsi).$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Good point. Do you think that that might be an equality? You can show that $ker left(phi otimes 1right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V$, and since $phi otimes psi = phi otimes 1 circ 1 otimes psi$ does it follow?
            – Joshua Tilley
            Jul 17 at 14:32










          • @JoshuaTilley I'm sure this is an equality, certainly for finite-dimensional spaces.
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Jul 17 at 15:14










          • You can prove both that $ker left(phi otimes psi right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V+Uotimes ker left(psi right)$ and $textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)=textrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$ by rank nullity. Given the inclusion you noted, and the inclusion for the image that I noted, you get lower bounds for the rank and nullity of the tensor product map, but they add up to the dimension of $Uotimes V$, and hence are equalities.
            – Joshua Tilley
            Jul 17 at 16:20











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          up vote
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          down vote













          In general, you won't have the first of these, since
          $$kerphiotimes V+Uotimeskerpsisubseteqker(phiotimespsi).$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Good point. Do you think that that might be an equality? You can show that $ker left(phi otimes 1right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V$, and since $phi otimes psi = phi otimes 1 circ 1 otimes psi$ does it follow?
            – Joshua Tilley
            Jul 17 at 14:32










          • @JoshuaTilley I'm sure this is an equality, certainly for finite-dimensional spaces.
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Jul 17 at 15:14










          • You can prove both that $ker left(phi otimes psi right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V+Uotimes ker left(psi right)$ and $textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)=textrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$ by rank nullity. Given the inclusion you noted, and the inclusion for the image that I noted, you get lower bounds for the rank and nullity of the tensor product map, but they add up to the dimension of $Uotimes V$, and hence are equalities.
            – Joshua Tilley
            Jul 17 at 16:20















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          In general, you won't have the first of these, since
          $$kerphiotimes V+Uotimeskerpsisubseteqker(phiotimespsi).$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Good point. Do you think that that might be an equality? You can show that $ker left(phi otimes 1right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V$, and since $phi otimes psi = phi otimes 1 circ 1 otimes psi$ does it follow?
            – Joshua Tilley
            Jul 17 at 14:32










          • @JoshuaTilley I'm sure this is an equality, certainly for finite-dimensional spaces.
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Jul 17 at 15:14










          • You can prove both that $ker left(phi otimes psi right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V+Uotimes ker left(psi right)$ and $textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)=textrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$ by rank nullity. Given the inclusion you noted, and the inclusion for the image that I noted, you get lower bounds for the rank and nullity of the tensor product map, but they add up to the dimension of $Uotimes V$, and hence are equalities.
            – Joshua Tilley
            Jul 17 at 16:20













          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          In general, you won't have the first of these, since
          $$kerphiotimes V+Uotimeskerpsisubseteqker(phiotimespsi).$$






          share|cite|improve this answer













          In general, you won't have the first of these, since
          $$kerphiotimes V+Uotimeskerpsisubseteqker(phiotimespsi).$$







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 16 at 17:28









          Lord Shark the Unknown

          85.6k951112




          85.6k951112











          • Good point. Do you think that that might be an equality? You can show that $ker left(phi otimes 1right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V$, and since $phi otimes psi = phi otimes 1 circ 1 otimes psi$ does it follow?
            – Joshua Tilley
            Jul 17 at 14:32










          • @JoshuaTilley I'm sure this is an equality, certainly for finite-dimensional spaces.
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Jul 17 at 15:14










          • You can prove both that $ker left(phi otimes psi right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V+Uotimes ker left(psi right)$ and $textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)=textrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$ by rank nullity. Given the inclusion you noted, and the inclusion for the image that I noted, you get lower bounds for the rank and nullity of the tensor product map, but they add up to the dimension of $Uotimes V$, and hence are equalities.
            – Joshua Tilley
            Jul 17 at 16:20

















          • Good point. Do you think that that might be an equality? You can show that $ker left(phi otimes 1right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V$, and since $phi otimes psi = phi otimes 1 circ 1 otimes psi$ does it follow?
            – Joshua Tilley
            Jul 17 at 14:32










          • @JoshuaTilley I'm sure this is an equality, certainly for finite-dimensional spaces.
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Jul 17 at 15:14










          • You can prove both that $ker left(phi otimes psi right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V+Uotimes ker left(psi right)$ and $textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)=textrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$ by rank nullity. Given the inclusion you noted, and the inclusion for the image that I noted, you get lower bounds for the rank and nullity of the tensor product map, but they add up to the dimension of $Uotimes V$, and hence are equalities.
            – Joshua Tilley
            Jul 17 at 16:20
















          Good point. Do you think that that might be an equality? You can show that $ker left(phi otimes 1right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V$, and since $phi otimes psi = phi otimes 1 circ 1 otimes psi$ does it follow?
          – Joshua Tilley
          Jul 17 at 14:32




          Good point. Do you think that that might be an equality? You can show that $ker left(phi otimes 1right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V$, and since $phi otimes psi = phi otimes 1 circ 1 otimes psi$ does it follow?
          – Joshua Tilley
          Jul 17 at 14:32












          @JoshuaTilley I'm sure this is an equality, certainly for finite-dimensional spaces.
          – Lord Shark the Unknown
          Jul 17 at 15:14




          @JoshuaTilley I'm sure this is an equality, certainly for finite-dimensional spaces.
          – Lord Shark the Unknown
          Jul 17 at 15:14












          You can prove both that $ker left(phi otimes psi right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V+Uotimes ker left(psi right)$ and $textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)=textrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$ by rank nullity. Given the inclusion you noted, and the inclusion for the image that I noted, you get lower bounds for the rank and nullity of the tensor product map, but they add up to the dimension of $Uotimes V$, and hence are equalities.
          – Joshua Tilley
          Jul 17 at 16:20





          You can prove both that $ker left(phi otimes psi right)=ker left(phi right)otimes V+Uotimes ker left(psi right)$ and $textrmimleft(phiright)otimestextrmimleft(psiright)=textrmimleft(phiotimespsiright)$ by rank nullity. Given the inclusion you noted, and the inclusion for the image that I noted, you get lower bounds for the rank and nullity of the tensor product map, but they add up to the dimension of $Uotimes V$, and hence are equalities.
          – Joshua Tilley
          Jul 17 at 16:20













           

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