Restriction of interval while proving an inequality

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In many books and online , the inequality $sin x<x$ is defined only over the interval $[0, fracpi2]$ . However it is easy to check that the inequality holds good over the interval $[fracpi2 , pi]$ as well. We can check it graphically . In fact it holds good for all positive numbers. Is there a special reason for proving this inequality over the restricted interval of $[0, fracpi2]$ ?







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  • You probably mean $left(0, fracpi2right]$. At $x = 0$ we have equality.
    – mechanodroid
    Jul 16 at 17:08










  • @mechanodroid right . I didn’t pay attention to that. Thanks for correcting me.
    – Aditi
    Jul 16 at 17:15














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












In many books and online , the inequality $sin x<x$ is defined only over the interval $[0, fracpi2]$ . However it is easy to check that the inequality holds good over the interval $[fracpi2 , pi]$ as well. We can check it graphically . In fact it holds good for all positive numbers. Is there a special reason for proving this inequality over the restricted interval of $[0, fracpi2]$ ?







share|cite|improve this question





















  • You probably mean $left(0, fracpi2right]$. At $x = 0$ we have equality.
    – mechanodroid
    Jul 16 at 17:08










  • @mechanodroid right . I didn’t pay attention to that. Thanks for correcting me.
    – Aditi
    Jul 16 at 17:15












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











In many books and online , the inequality $sin x<x$ is defined only over the interval $[0, fracpi2]$ . However it is easy to check that the inequality holds good over the interval $[fracpi2 , pi]$ as well. We can check it graphically . In fact it holds good for all positive numbers. Is there a special reason for proving this inequality over the restricted interval of $[0, fracpi2]$ ?







share|cite|improve this question













In many books and online , the inequality $sin x<x$ is defined only over the interval $[0, fracpi2]$ . However it is easy to check that the inequality holds good over the interval $[fracpi2 , pi]$ as well. We can check it graphically . In fact it holds good for all positive numbers. Is there a special reason for proving this inequality over the restricted interval of $[0, fracpi2]$ ?









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share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 16 at 16:55









ervx

9,39531336




9,39531336









asked Jul 16 at 16:53









Aditi

694314




694314











  • You probably mean $left(0, fracpi2right]$. At $x = 0$ we have equality.
    – mechanodroid
    Jul 16 at 17:08










  • @mechanodroid right . I didn’t pay attention to that. Thanks for correcting me.
    – Aditi
    Jul 16 at 17:15
















  • You probably mean $left(0, fracpi2right]$. At $x = 0$ we have equality.
    – mechanodroid
    Jul 16 at 17:08










  • @mechanodroid right . I didn’t pay attention to that. Thanks for correcting me.
    – Aditi
    Jul 16 at 17:15















You probably mean $left(0, fracpi2right]$. At $x = 0$ we have equality.
– mechanodroid
Jul 16 at 17:08




You probably mean $left(0, fracpi2right]$. At $x = 0$ we have equality.
– mechanodroid
Jul 16 at 17:08












@mechanodroid right . I didn’t pay attention to that. Thanks for correcting me.
– Aditi
Jul 16 at 17:15




@mechanodroid right . I didn’t pay attention to that. Thanks for correcting me.
– Aditi
Jul 16 at 17:15










1 Answer
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1
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You are correct. The inequality holds for all positive $x$. Easiest way to see this is probably to compare derivative.



In regards to the restriction of the inequality: It is possible that in your case, you only need the fact that $sin x<x$ on $[0,pi/2]$, rather than on the whole positive real line.



Often times, the author will restrict to a smaller interval to emphasize that that is the only necessary place for the inequality to hold in the remainder of the argument.






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  • Alright ! Thanks for your help :)
    – Aditi
    Jul 16 at 16:58










  • Your welcome :-)
    – ervx
    Jul 16 at 17:03










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










You are correct. The inequality holds for all positive $x$. Easiest way to see this is probably to compare derivative.



In regards to the restriction of the inequality: It is possible that in your case, you only need the fact that $sin x<x$ on $[0,pi/2]$, rather than on the whole positive real line.



Often times, the author will restrict to a smaller interval to emphasize that that is the only necessary place for the inequality to hold in the remainder of the argument.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Alright ! Thanks for your help :)
    – Aditi
    Jul 16 at 16:58










  • Your welcome :-)
    – ervx
    Jul 16 at 17:03














up vote
1
down vote



accepted










You are correct. The inequality holds for all positive $x$. Easiest way to see this is probably to compare derivative.



In regards to the restriction of the inequality: It is possible that in your case, you only need the fact that $sin x<x$ on $[0,pi/2]$, rather than on the whole positive real line.



Often times, the author will restrict to a smaller interval to emphasize that that is the only necessary place for the inequality to hold in the remainder of the argument.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Alright ! Thanks for your help :)
    – Aditi
    Jul 16 at 16:58










  • Your welcome :-)
    – ervx
    Jul 16 at 17:03












up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






You are correct. The inequality holds for all positive $x$. Easiest way to see this is probably to compare derivative.



In regards to the restriction of the inequality: It is possible that in your case, you only need the fact that $sin x<x$ on $[0,pi/2]$, rather than on the whole positive real line.



Often times, the author will restrict to a smaller interval to emphasize that that is the only necessary place for the inequality to hold in the remainder of the argument.






share|cite|improve this answer















You are correct. The inequality holds for all positive $x$. Easiest way to see this is probably to compare derivative.



In regards to the restriction of the inequality: It is possible that in your case, you only need the fact that $sin x<x$ on $[0,pi/2]$, rather than on the whole positive real line.



Often times, the author will restrict to a smaller interval to emphasize that that is the only necessary place for the inequality to hold in the remainder of the argument.







share|cite|improve this answer















share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jul 16 at 16:59


























answered Jul 16 at 16:57









ervx

9,39531336




9,39531336











  • Alright ! Thanks for your help :)
    – Aditi
    Jul 16 at 16:58










  • Your welcome :-)
    – ervx
    Jul 16 at 17:03
















  • Alright ! Thanks for your help :)
    – Aditi
    Jul 16 at 16:58










  • Your welcome :-)
    – ervx
    Jul 16 at 17:03















Alright ! Thanks for your help :)
– Aditi
Jul 16 at 16:58




Alright ! Thanks for your help :)
– Aditi
Jul 16 at 16:58












Your welcome :-)
– ervx
Jul 16 at 17:03




Your welcome :-)
– ervx
Jul 16 at 17:03












 

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