Existence of antiderivative on a part $I$ of $mathbbR$ [closed]

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Let $f$ be a continuous function on a part $I$ of $mathbbR$. Is they exist always a function $F$ differentiable on an interval $J$ containing I such that $F'=f$ on $I$?



If $I$ is an interval , it's ok



if $I$ is an open set , it's ok



But if $I$ is only a part of $mathbbR$ ?







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closed as off-topic by user21820, Delta-u, Taroccoesbrocco, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz Jul 25 at 11:36


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – user21820, Delta-u, Taroccoesbrocco, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • No, it's not true if $I$ is open. See my answer below.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 15:39










  • A more interesting question might be to ask if there is an open set $J$ containing $I$ for which the conclusion is true.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 15:52






  • 2




    @Fimpellizieri Boundedness is not enough, there are things like $sin(1/x)$ lurking about. Now if $f$ is uniformly continuous, your plan works.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 16:01










  • @zhw there are some things I do not understand: every open set of R is a countable union of disjoint open intervals , so f admits antidérivative function in each interval
    – Tina
    Jul 16 at 16:05










  • @Tina True, but you told us $J$ was to be an interval.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 16:06














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $f$ be a continuous function on a part $I$ of $mathbbR$. Is they exist always a function $F$ differentiable on an interval $J$ containing I such that $F'=f$ on $I$?



If $I$ is an interval , it's ok



if $I$ is an open set , it's ok



But if $I$ is only a part of $mathbbR$ ?







share|cite|improve this question













closed as off-topic by user21820, Delta-u, Taroccoesbrocco, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz Jul 25 at 11:36


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – user21820, Delta-u, Taroccoesbrocco, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • No, it's not true if $I$ is open. See my answer below.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 15:39










  • A more interesting question might be to ask if there is an open set $J$ containing $I$ for which the conclusion is true.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 15:52






  • 2




    @Fimpellizieri Boundedness is not enough, there are things like $sin(1/x)$ lurking about. Now if $f$ is uniformly continuous, your plan works.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 16:01










  • @zhw there are some things I do not understand: every open set of R is a countable union of disjoint open intervals , so f admits antidérivative function in each interval
    – Tina
    Jul 16 at 16:05










  • @Tina True, but you told us $J$ was to be an interval.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 16:06












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Let $f$ be a continuous function on a part $I$ of $mathbbR$. Is they exist always a function $F$ differentiable on an interval $J$ containing I such that $F'=f$ on $I$?



If $I$ is an interval , it's ok



if $I$ is an open set , it's ok



But if $I$ is only a part of $mathbbR$ ?







share|cite|improve this question













Let $f$ be a continuous function on a part $I$ of $mathbbR$. Is they exist always a function $F$ differentiable on an interval $J$ containing I such that $F'=f$ on $I$?



If $I$ is an interval , it's ok



if $I$ is an open set , it's ok



But if $I$ is only a part of $mathbbR$ ?









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 19 at 14:26









Martin Sleziak

43.5k6113259




43.5k6113259









asked Jul 16 at 15:13









Tina

355112




355112




closed as off-topic by user21820, Delta-u, Taroccoesbrocco, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz Jul 25 at 11:36


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – user21820, Delta-u, Taroccoesbrocco, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by user21820, Delta-u, Taroccoesbrocco, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz Jul 25 at 11:36


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – user21820, Delta-u, Taroccoesbrocco, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.











  • No, it's not true if $I$ is open. See my answer below.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 15:39










  • A more interesting question might be to ask if there is an open set $J$ containing $I$ for which the conclusion is true.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 15:52






  • 2




    @Fimpellizieri Boundedness is not enough, there are things like $sin(1/x)$ lurking about. Now if $f$ is uniformly continuous, your plan works.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 16:01










  • @zhw there are some things I do not understand: every open set of R is a countable union of disjoint open intervals , so f admits antidérivative function in each interval
    – Tina
    Jul 16 at 16:05










  • @Tina True, but you told us $J$ was to be an interval.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 16:06
















  • No, it's not true if $I$ is open. See my answer below.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 15:39










  • A more interesting question might be to ask if there is an open set $J$ containing $I$ for which the conclusion is true.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 15:52






  • 2




    @Fimpellizieri Boundedness is not enough, there are things like $sin(1/x)$ lurking about. Now if $f$ is uniformly continuous, your plan works.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 16:01










  • @zhw there are some things I do not understand: every open set of R is a countable union of disjoint open intervals , so f admits antidérivative function in each interval
    – Tina
    Jul 16 at 16:05










  • @Tina True, but you told us $J$ was to be an interval.
    – zhw.
    Jul 16 at 16:06















No, it's not true if $I$ is open. See my answer below.
– zhw.
Jul 16 at 15:39




No, it's not true if $I$ is open. See my answer below.
– zhw.
Jul 16 at 15:39












A more interesting question might be to ask if there is an open set $J$ containing $I$ for which the conclusion is true.
– zhw.
Jul 16 at 15:52




A more interesting question might be to ask if there is an open set $J$ containing $I$ for which the conclusion is true.
– zhw.
Jul 16 at 15:52




2




2




@Fimpellizieri Boundedness is not enough, there are things like $sin(1/x)$ lurking about. Now if $f$ is uniformly continuous, your plan works.
– zhw.
Jul 16 at 16:01




@Fimpellizieri Boundedness is not enough, there are things like $sin(1/x)$ lurking about. Now if $f$ is uniformly continuous, your plan works.
– zhw.
Jul 16 at 16:01












@zhw there are some things I do not understand: every open set of R is a countable union of disjoint open intervals , so f admits antidérivative function in each interval
– Tina
Jul 16 at 16:05




@zhw there are some things I do not understand: every open set of R is a countable union of disjoint open intervals , so f admits antidérivative function in each interval
– Tina
Jul 16 at 16:05












@Tina True, but you told us $J$ was to be an interval.
– zhw.
Jul 16 at 16:06




@Tina True, but you told us $J$ was to be an interval.
– zhw.
Jul 16 at 16:06










1 Answer
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up vote
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Counterexample: Let $I=(-1,0)cup (0,1).$ Define $f(x) = 1/x$ for $xin I.$ Then $f$ is continuous on $I.$ Let $J$ be an interval containing $I.$ Then $J$ contains $0.$ Suppose $F$ is differentiable on $J$ and $F'=f$ on $I.$ Then for small $x>0$ we have



$$F(1/2)-F(x) = int_x^1/2 fracdtt = ln (1/2)-ln x.$$



As $xto 0^+,$ the left side $to F(1/2)-F(0),$ while the right side $to infty,$ contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted










    Counterexample: Let $I=(-1,0)cup (0,1).$ Define $f(x) = 1/x$ for $xin I.$ Then $f$ is continuous on $I.$ Let $J$ be an interval containing $I.$ Then $J$ contains $0.$ Suppose $F$ is differentiable on $J$ and $F'=f$ on $I.$ Then for small $x>0$ we have



    $$F(1/2)-F(x) = int_x^1/2 fracdtt = ln (1/2)-ln x.$$



    As $xto 0^+,$ the left side $to F(1/2)-F(0),$ while the right side $to infty,$ contradiction.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      Counterexample: Let $I=(-1,0)cup (0,1).$ Define $f(x) = 1/x$ for $xin I.$ Then $f$ is continuous on $I.$ Let $J$ be an interval containing $I.$ Then $J$ contains $0.$ Suppose $F$ is differentiable on $J$ and $F'=f$ on $I.$ Then for small $x>0$ we have



      $$F(1/2)-F(x) = int_x^1/2 fracdtt = ln (1/2)-ln x.$$



      As $xto 0^+,$ the left side $to F(1/2)-F(0),$ while the right side $to infty,$ contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted






        Counterexample: Let $I=(-1,0)cup (0,1).$ Define $f(x) = 1/x$ for $xin I.$ Then $f$ is continuous on $I.$ Let $J$ be an interval containing $I.$ Then $J$ contains $0.$ Suppose $F$ is differentiable on $J$ and $F'=f$ on $I.$ Then for small $x>0$ we have



        $$F(1/2)-F(x) = int_x^1/2 fracdtt = ln (1/2)-ln x.$$



        As $xto 0^+,$ the left side $to F(1/2)-F(0),$ while the right side $to infty,$ contradiction.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        Counterexample: Let $I=(-1,0)cup (0,1).$ Define $f(x) = 1/x$ for $xin I.$ Then $f$ is continuous on $I.$ Let $J$ be an interval containing $I.$ Then $J$ contains $0.$ Suppose $F$ is differentiable on $J$ and $F'=f$ on $I.$ Then for small $x>0$ we have



        $$F(1/2)-F(x) = int_x^1/2 fracdtt = ln (1/2)-ln x.$$



        As $xto 0^+,$ the left side $to F(1/2)-F(0),$ while the right side $to infty,$ contradiction.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Jul 16 at 15:38









        zhw.

        65.8k42870




        65.8k42870












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