Confusion over proof of Lifting the Exponent Lemma

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Lifting the Exponent Lemma



I am referring to page 3 of the linked paper. In the paper, the author proves that $v_p(x^p-y^p) = v_p(x-y) +1$. To prove this, he first proves that p divides $fracx^p-y^px-p$. The proof for this makes sense to me although the reason behind his next step is quite unclear to me. For some reason, he proves that $p^2$ does not divide $fracx^p-y^px-p$. What is the purpose of doing this? Isn't it obvious that $p^2$ can't divide $px^p-1$ if $p$ can't divide $x$?







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    Lifting the Exponent Lemma



    I am referring to page 3 of the linked paper. In the paper, the author proves that $v_p(x^p-y^p) = v_p(x-y) +1$. To prove this, he first proves that p divides $fracx^p-y^px-p$. The proof for this makes sense to me although the reason behind his next step is quite unclear to me. For some reason, he proves that $p^2$ does not divide $fracx^p-y^px-p$. What is the purpose of doing this? Isn't it obvious that $p^2$ can't divide $px^p-1$ if $p$ can't divide $x$?







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Lifting the Exponent Lemma



      I am referring to page 3 of the linked paper. In the paper, the author proves that $v_p(x^p-y^p) = v_p(x-y) +1$. To prove this, he first proves that p divides $fracx^p-y^px-p$. The proof for this makes sense to me although the reason behind his next step is quite unclear to me. For some reason, he proves that $p^2$ does not divide $fracx^p-y^px-p$. What is the purpose of doing this? Isn't it obvious that $p^2$ can't divide $px^p-1$ if $p$ can't divide $x$?







      share|cite|improve this question













      Lifting the Exponent Lemma



      I am referring to page 3 of the linked paper. In the paper, the author proves that $v_p(x^p-y^p) = v_p(x-y) +1$. To prove this, he first proves that p divides $fracx^p-y^px-p$. The proof for this makes sense to me although the reason behind his next step is quite unclear to me. For some reason, he proves that $p^2$ does not divide $fracx^p-y^px-p$. What is the purpose of doing this? Isn't it obvious that $p^2$ can't divide $px^p-1$ if $p$ can't divide $x$?









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      edited Jul 31 at 0:29









      Stefan4024

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      asked Jul 30 at 23:17









      Dude156

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          The reason why he proves that $p^2$ doesn't divide $fracx^p-y^px-y$ is to prove that $p$ is the highest power of $p$ dividing the integer.



          I feel that the confusion stems from one of the first line in the proof where we have that $x^p-1y + cdots xy^p-1 equiv px^p-1 pmod p$. Note that here we have $p$ as a modulo and not $p^2$. Thus this isn't enough to conclude that the number on the left is equal to $px^p-1$ modulo $p^2$. Therefore we need the extra work.






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          • aaaah i see! Thanks!
            – Dude156
            Jul 31 at 1:59










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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






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          up vote
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          accepted










          The reason why he proves that $p^2$ doesn't divide $fracx^p-y^px-y$ is to prove that $p$ is the highest power of $p$ dividing the integer.



          I feel that the confusion stems from one of the first line in the proof where we have that $x^p-1y + cdots xy^p-1 equiv px^p-1 pmod p$. Note that here we have $p$ as a modulo and not $p^2$. Thus this isn't enough to conclude that the number on the left is equal to $px^p-1$ modulo $p^2$. Therefore we need the extra work.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • aaaah i see! Thanks!
            – Dude156
            Jul 31 at 1:59














          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          The reason why he proves that $p^2$ doesn't divide $fracx^p-y^px-y$ is to prove that $p$ is the highest power of $p$ dividing the integer.



          I feel that the confusion stems from one of the first line in the proof where we have that $x^p-1y + cdots xy^p-1 equiv px^p-1 pmod p$. Note that here we have $p$ as a modulo and not $p^2$. Thus this isn't enough to conclude that the number on the left is equal to $px^p-1$ modulo $p^2$. Therefore we need the extra work.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • aaaah i see! Thanks!
            – Dude156
            Jul 31 at 1:59












          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          The reason why he proves that $p^2$ doesn't divide $fracx^p-y^px-y$ is to prove that $p$ is the highest power of $p$ dividing the integer.



          I feel that the confusion stems from one of the first line in the proof where we have that $x^p-1y + cdots xy^p-1 equiv px^p-1 pmod p$. Note that here we have $p$ as a modulo and not $p^2$. Thus this isn't enough to conclude that the number on the left is equal to $px^p-1$ modulo $p^2$. Therefore we need the extra work.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          The reason why he proves that $p^2$ doesn't divide $fracx^p-y^px-y$ is to prove that $p$ is the highest power of $p$ dividing the integer.



          I feel that the confusion stems from one of the first line in the proof where we have that $x^p-1y + cdots xy^p-1 equiv px^p-1 pmod p$. Note that here we have $p$ as a modulo and not $p^2$. Thus this isn't enough to conclude that the number on the left is equal to $px^p-1$ modulo $p^2$. Therefore we need the extra work.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 31 at 0:35









          Stefan4024

          27.8k52974




          27.8k52974











          • aaaah i see! Thanks!
            – Dude156
            Jul 31 at 1:59
















          • aaaah i see! Thanks!
            – Dude156
            Jul 31 at 1:59















          aaaah i see! Thanks!
          – Dude156
          Jul 31 at 1:59




          aaaah i see! Thanks!
          – Dude156
          Jul 31 at 1:59












           

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