Equivalence over convergence in distribution

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Let $X$ be a metric space and $mu_1,mu_2,...,mu$ be Borel probability measures on $X$.



The Portmanteau theorem says the following are equivalent:




(a) $int_X gdmu_n to int_X gdmu$ for each $gin C_b(X)$



(b) For every $mu$-continuity set $A$, $mu_n(A)to mu(A)$




If one of these conditions holds, then we say $mu_nto mu$ weakly.



Now, let’s take $X=mathbbR^m$ and $F_n,F$ be the c.d.f’s of $mu_n,mu$ respectively.



If $F_n(x)to F(x)$ for every point $x$ at which $F$ is continuous, then does $mu_n to mu$ weakly?



If $m=1$, this is true and it can be found in many probability theory texts. Is it still true for $m>1$? I cannot find any reference for this. Is there any text having this proof? Or could someone show me how prove this directly? Thank you in advance.







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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite












    Let $X$ be a metric space and $mu_1,mu_2,...,mu$ be Borel probability measures on $X$.



    The Portmanteau theorem says the following are equivalent:




    (a) $int_X gdmu_n to int_X gdmu$ for each $gin C_b(X)$



    (b) For every $mu$-continuity set $A$, $mu_n(A)to mu(A)$




    If one of these conditions holds, then we say $mu_nto mu$ weakly.



    Now, let’s take $X=mathbbR^m$ and $F_n,F$ be the c.d.f’s of $mu_n,mu$ respectively.



    If $F_n(x)to F(x)$ for every point $x$ at which $F$ is continuous, then does $mu_n to mu$ weakly?



    If $m=1$, this is true and it can be found in many probability theory texts. Is it still true for $m>1$? I cannot find any reference for this. Is there any text having this proof? Or could someone show me how prove this directly? Thank you in advance.







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $X$ be a metric space and $mu_1,mu_2,...,mu$ be Borel probability measures on $X$.



      The Portmanteau theorem says the following are equivalent:




      (a) $int_X gdmu_n to int_X gdmu$ for each $gin C_b(X)$



      (b) For every $mu$-continuity set $A$, $mu_n(A)to mu(A)$




      If one of these conditions holds, then we say $mu_nto mu$ weakly.



      Now, let’s take $X=mathbbR^m$ and $F_n,F$ be the c.d.f’s of $mu_n,mu$ respectively.



      If $F_n(x)to F(x)$ for every point $x$ at which $F$ is continuous, then does $mu_n to mu$ weakly?



      If $m=1$, this is true and it can be found in many probability theory texts. Is it still true for $m>1$? I cannot find any reference for this. Is there any text having this proof? Or could someone show me how prove this directly? Thank you in advance.







      share|cite|improve this question











      Let $X$ be a metric space and $mu_1,mu_2,...,mu$ be Borel probability measures on $X$.



      The Portmanteau theorem says the following are equivalent:




      (a) $int_X gdmu_n to int_X gdmu$ for each $gin C_b(X)$



      (b) For every $mu$-continuity set $A$, $mu_n(A)to mu(A)$




      If one of these conditions holds, then we say $mu_nto mu$ weakly.



      Now, let’s take $X=mathbbR^m$ and $F_n,F$ be the c.d.f’s of $mu_n,mu$ respectively.



      If $F_n(x)to F(x)$ for every point $x$ at which $F$ is continuous, then does $mu_n to mu$ weakly?



      If $m=1$, this is true and it can be found in many probability theory texts. Is it still true for $m>1$? I cannot find any reference for this. Is there any text having this proof? Or could someone show me how prove this directly? Thank you in advance.









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      asked Jul 16 at 19:38









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