gradient of implicit function

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$f : U subset R^3 to R$ is differentiable function.



$f^-(0)$ is regular surface.



Is gradient f(p) $neq$ 0 for at all $p in f^-(0)$ ?



I think the above question is true.

By the way, I do not know where to start the proof.
Give me a hint.







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    up vote
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    favorite
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    $f : U subset R^3 to R$ is differentiable function.



    $f^-(0)$ is regular surface.



    Is gradient f(p) $neq$ 0 for at all $p in f^-(0)$ ?



    I think the above question is true.

    By the way, I do not know where to start the proof.
    Give me a hint.







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
      2






      2





      $f : U subset R^3 to R$ is differentiable function.



      $f^-(0)$ is regular surface.



      Is gradient f(p) $neq$ 0 for at all $p in f^-(0)$ ?



      I think the above question is true.

      By the way, I do not know where to start the proof.
      Give me a hint.







      share|cite|improve this question











      $f : U subset R^3 to R$ is differentiable function.



      $f^-(0)$ is regular surface.



      Is gradient f(p) $neq$ 0 for at all $p in f^-(0)$ ?



      I think the above question is true.

      By the way, I do not know where to start the proof.
      Give me a hint.









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Jul 18 at 6:55









      LeeHanWoong

      398




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          Is not true. Take for example the following function
          $$
          f(x_1, x_2, x_3) := ( |x|^2 - 1 )^2,
          $$
          where $|x| = sqrtx_1^2 + x_2^2 + x_3^2$.



          Clearly $f^-1(0)$ is the unit sphere but you can check that the gradient is zero everywhere on each point of the sphere, because each point is a minimum point.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            1 Answer
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            active

            oldest

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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted










            Is not true. Take for example the following function
            $$
            f(x_1, x_2, x_3) := ( |x|^2 - 1 )^2,
            $$
            where $|x| = sqrtx_1^2 + x_2^2 + x_3^2$.



            Clearly $f^-1(0)$ is the unit sphere but you can check that the gradient is zero everywhere on each point of the sphere, because each point is a minimum point.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              Is not true. Take for example the following function
              $$
              f(x_1, x_2, x_3) := ( |x|^2 - 1 )^2,
              $$
              where $|x| = sqrtx_1^2 + x_2^2 + x_3^2$.



              Clearly $f^-1(0)$ is the unit sphere but you can check that the gradient is zero everywhere on each point of the sphere, because each point is a minimum point.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted






                Is not true. Take for example the following function
                $$
                f(x_1, x_2, x_3) := ( |x|^2 - 1 )^2,
                $$
                where $|x| = sqrtx_1^2 + x_2^2 + x_3^2$.



                Clearly $f^-1(0)$ is the unit sphere but you can check that the gradient is zero everywhere on each point of the sphere, because each point is a minimum point.






                share|cite|improve this answer













                Is not true. Take for example the following function
                $$
                f(x_1, x_2, x_3) := ( |x|^2 - 1 )^2,
                $$
                where $|x| = sqrtx_1^2 + x_2^2 + x_3^2$.



                Clearly $f^-1(0)$ is the unit sphere but you can check that the gradient is zero everywhere on each point of the sphere, because each point is a minimum point.







                share|cite|improve this answer













                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer











                answered Jul 18 at 7:59









                Onil90

                1,494521




                1,494521






















                     

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