How to prove that the order of $x$ modulo $N$ satisfies $r leq N$?

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I'm rather new to number theory and don't have any knowledge in group theory at all. How can I prove that the least positive integer $r$ such that $x^r=1 (mod N) $ satisfies $r leq N$?



My thoughts on this problem:



In the definition of order modulo $N$ it is stated that $x<N$ and $gcd(x,N)=1$.
This fact allows us (using $gcd$ representation theorem) to state that there exist integers $a,b$ such that $ax+bN=1$. I think I have to use this somehow, but I'm stuck on this step. Can I please get help?



UPD: Thanks to everybody who helped me, the proofs are really elegant and smart!







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  • You need the condition that a and n be coprime, otherwise the question is formally nonsense. Keep in mind that powers of an element in a group form a periodic sequence, and the period is the order of the elements. Furthermore, inside a period, any two powers are different. As there are less then N different powers of the element a (since 0 is not a power), we are done.
    – A. Pongrácz
    Jul 19 at 13:20










  • Do You mean $x$ and $N$ are coprime?
    – Aleksandr Berezutskii
    Jul 19 at 13:25










  • Yes, indeed. Sorry.
    – A. Pongrácz
    Jul 19 at 13:26










  • Thank You! Your comment helped me to understand the fact that order modulo $N$ basically gives the number of different residues modulo $N$ that exist for different powers of $x$
    – Aleksandr Berezutskii
    Jul 19 at 13:59














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I'm rather new to number theory and don't have any knowledge in group theory at all. How can I prove that the least positive integer $r$ such that $x^r=1 (mod N) $ satisfies $r leq N$?



My thoughts on this problem:



In the definition of order modulo $N$ it is stated that $x<N$ and $gcd(x,N)=1$.
This fact allows us (using $gcd$ representation theorem) to state that there exist integers $a,b$ such that $ax+bN=1$. I think I have to use this somehow, but I'm stuck on this step. Can I please get help?



UPD: Thanks to everybody who helped me, the proofs are really elegant and smart!







share|cite|improve this question





















  • You need the condition that a and n be coprime, otherwise the question is formally nonsense. Keep in mind that powers of an element in a group form a periodic sequence, and the period is the order of the elements. Furthermore, inside a period, any two powers are different. As there are less then N different powers of the element a (since 0 is not a power), we are done.
    – A. Pongrácz
    Jul 19 at 13:20










  • Do You mean $x$ and $N$ are coprime?
    – Aleksandr Berezutskii
    Jul 19 at 13:25










  • Yes, indeed. Sorry.
    – A. Pongrácz
    Jul 19 at 13:26










  • Thank You! Your comment helped me to understand the fact that order modulo $N$ basically gives the number of different residues modulo $N$ that exist for different powers of $x$
    – Aleksandr Berezutskii
    Jul 19 at 13:59












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I'm rather new to number theory and don't have any knowledge in group theory at all. How can I prove that the least positive integer $r$ such that $x^r=1 (mod N) $ satisfies $r leq N$?



My thoughts on this problem:



In the definition of order modulo $N$ it is stated that $x<N$ and $gcd(x,N)=1$.
This fact allows us (using $gcd$ representation theorem) to state that there exist integers $a,b$ such that $ax+bN=1$. I think I have to use this somehow, but I'm stuck on this step. Can I please get help?



UPD: Thanks to everybody who helped me, the proofs are really elegant and smart!







share|cite|improve this question













I'm rather new to number theory and don't have any knowledge in group theory at all. How can I prove that the least positive integer $r$ such that $x^r=1 (mod N) $ satisfies $r leq N$?



My thoughts on this problem:



In the definition of order modulo $N$ it is stated that $x<N$ and $gcd(x,N)=1$.
This fact allows us (using $gcd$ representation theorem) to state that there exist integers $a,b$ such that $ax+bN=1$. I think I have to use this somehow, but I'm stuck on this step. Can I please get help?



UPD: Thanks to everybody who helped me, the proofs are really elegant and smart!









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 19 at 14:05
























asked Jul 19 at 13:14









Aleksandr Berezutskii

32




32











  • You need the condition that a and n be coprime, otherwise the question is formally nonsense. Keep in mind that powers of an element in a group form a periodic sequence, and the period is the order of the elements. Furthermore, inside a period, any two powers are different. As there are less then N different powers of the element a (since 0 is not a power), we are done.
    – A. Pongrácz
    Jul 19 at 13:20










  • Do You mean $x$ and $N$ are coprime?
    – Aleksandr Berezutskii
    Jul 19 at 13:25










  • Yes, indeed. Sorry.
    – A. Pongrácz
    Jul 19 at 13:26










  • Thank You! Your comment helped me to understand the fact that order modulo $N$ basically gives the number of different residues modulo $N$ that exist for different powers of $x$
    – Aleksandr Berezutskii
    Jul 19 at 13:59
















  • You need the condition that a and n be coprime, otherwise the question is formally nonsense. Keep in mind that powers of an element in a group form a periodic sequence, and the period is the order of the elements. Furthermore, inside a period, any two powers are different. As there are less then N different powers of the element a (since 0 is not a power), we are done.
    – A. Pongrácz
    Jul 19 at 13:20










  • Do You mean $x$ and $N$ are coprime?
    – Aleksandr Berezutskii
    Jul 19 at 13:25










  • Yes, indeed. Sorry.
    – A. Pongrácz
    Jul 19 at 13:26










  • Thank You! Your comment helped me to understand the fact that order modulo $N$ basically gives the number of different residues modulo $N$ that exist for different powers of $x$
    – Aleksandr Berezutskii
    Jul 19 at 13:59















You need the condition that a and n be coprime, otherwise the question is formally nonsense. Keep in mind that powers of an element in a group form a periodic sequence, and the period is the order of the elements. Furthermore, inside a period, any two powers are different. As there are less then N different powers of the element a (since 0 is not a power), we are done.
– A. Pongrácz
Jul 19 at 13:20




You need the condition that a and n be coprime, otherwise the question is formally nonsense. Keep in mind that powers of an element in a group form a periodic sequence, and the period is the order of the elements. Furthermore, inside a period, any two powers are different. As there are less then N different powers of the element a (since 0 is not a power), we are done.
– A. Pongrácz
Jul 19 at 13:20












Do You mean $x$ and $N$ are coprime?
– Aleksandr Berezutskii
Jul 19 at 13:25




Do You mean $x$ and $N$ are coprime?
– Aleksandr Berezutskii
Jul 19 at 13:25












Yes, indeed. Sorry.
– A. Pongrácz
Jul 19 at 13:26




Yes, indeed. Sorry.
– A. Pongrácz
Jul 19 at 13:26












Thank You! Your comment helped me to understand the fact that order modulo $N$ basically gives the number of different residues modulo $N$ that exist for different powers of $x$
– Aleksandr Berezutskii
Jul 19 at 13:59




Thank You! Your comment helped me to understand the fact that order modulo $N$ basically gives the number of different residues modulo $N$ that exist for different powers of $x$
– Aleksandr Berezutskii
Jul 19 at 13:59










4 Answers
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0
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accepted










Yes, indeed you need that $gcd(x,N)=1$, because otherwise the statement is not true. Look e.g. at $2^requiv 1pmod 4$, which is only true for $r=0$ but not for any positive integer. So I will assume $gcd(x,N)=1$ in the following.




Look at the list



$$x^0,x^1,x^2,...,x^N-1,x^N$$



modulo $N$. This can give you at most $N$ different numbers, namely $0,...,N-1$. But the list has length $N+1$, so some number must ocure at least twice (pidgeonhole principle).



So, let's say $x^nequiv x^mpmod N$ with $n>m$. Maybe you already know that for $gcd(x,N)=1$ there is a unique multiplicative inverse $x^-1$ so that $xcdot x^-1equiv 1pmod N$. We multiply $x^-m:=(x^-1)^m$ to both sides:



beginalign
x^n&equiv x^mpmod N &|cdot x^-m \
x^ncdot x^-m&equiv x^mcdot x^-mpmod N \
x^n-m&equiv 1pmod N \
endalign



Since $n,mle N$ and $n>m$ we have that $r:=n-mle N$ (actually $r<N$).






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Draw $N$ points numbered $v_1, cdots, v_N$ on a circle. Draw an arrow from $v_i$ to $v_j$ if $v_j equiv v_ix mod N$. Now if you start following the arrows from $v_1$ (i.e start from $v_1$, then go to $v_j$ such that there's an arrow from $v_1$ to $v_j$ etc).



    If $gcd(x,N) neq 1$, then you would end up in a rho shape (eventually land up in a circle with a tail). But otherwise $x^-1 mod N$ exists, so you must end up in a circle.



    Try to find out why this happens by actually doing it with a pen and paper for $x = 2, N = 5$ and I think you should be able to understand why this is true (hint: use pigeon-hole principle and the existence of inverse)






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Consider the residues of $x^0,x^1,x^2,...,x^N$ modulo $N$. (Take for example, the least positive residue.)



      Then, there are $N+1$ residues listed above but there are only $N$ distinct residues modulo $N$.



      So $x^iequiv x^j (textrmmod N)$.
      Here it may be tempting to say $x^i-jequiv 1 (textrmmod N)$ but here you do need the condition that $x$ and $N$ are coprime because in general this is not true.



      (e.g. $6^2equiv 6(textrmmod 10)$ but clearly $6notequiv 1(textrmmod 10)$)



      And so if $x$ and $N$ are coprime, $x^j$ and $N$ are coprime as well so we can "cancel out" $x^j$ which is the equivalent of multiplying out about the inverse of $x^j$.






      share|cite|improve this answer




























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        Suppose there exists $m in Bbb Z^+$ such that $x^mequiv 1mod N.$ Let $n$ be the least such $m.$



        (1). If $1leq a<bleq n$ then $x^anot equiv x^b mod N.$ Proof: By contradiction: If $x^aequiv x^b$ let $m=a+(n-b).$ Then $$x^mequiv x^a+(n-b)equiv x^a x^n-bequiv$$ $$equiv x^bx^n-b=x^b+n-bequiv x^nequiv 1$$ but $1leq aleq a+(n-b)=m=n-(b-a)<n,$ so $1leq m<n$ so by def'n of $n$ we have $x^mnot equiv 1,$ a contradiction.



        (2). For $1leq aleq n$ let $1leq f(a)leq N$ such that $x^aequiv f(a) mod N.$ By (1), the set $S=f(a): 1leq aleq n$ has exactly $n$ members. But $S$ is a subset of the $N$-member set $y:1leq yleq N $ so $nleq N.$






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • (1) implies that the function $f$ is 1-to-1. Without this we could only say that $S$ has at most $n$ members, which would be of no use.
          – DanielWainfleet
          Jul 20 at 6:18










        • I tried to answer without the topic of multiplicative inverses $mod N$.
          – DanielWainfleet
          Jul 20 at 6:24











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        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes








        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes








        up vote
        0
        down vote



        accepted










        Yes, indeed you need that $gcd(x,N)=1$, because otherwise the statement is not true. Look e.g. at $2^requiv 1pmod 4$, which is only true for $r=0$ but not for any positive integer. So I will assume $gcd(x,N)=1$ in the following.




        Look at the list



        $$x^0,x^1,x^2,...,x^N-1,x^N$$



        modulo $N$. This can give you at most $N$ different numbers, namely $0,...,N-1$. But the list has length $N+1$, so some number must ocure at least twice (pidgeonhole principle).



        So, let's say $x^nequiv x^mpmod N$ with $n>m$. Maybe you already know that for $gcd(x,N)=1$ there is a unique multiplicative inverse $x^-1$ so that $xcdot x^-1equiv 1pmod N$. We multiply $x^-m:=(x^-1)^m$ to both sides:



        beginalign
        x^n&equiv x^mpmod N &|cdot x^-m \
        x^ncdot x^-m&equiv x^mcdot x^-mpmod N \
        x^n-m&equiv 1pmod N \
        endalign



        Since $n,mle N$ and $n>m$ we have that $r:=n-mle N$ (actually $r<N$).






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, indeed you need that $gcd(x,N)=1$, because otherwise the statement is not true. Look e.g. at $2^requiv 1pmod 4$, which is only true for $r=0$ but not for any positive integer. So I will assume $gcd(x,N)=1$ in the following.




          Look at the list



          $$x^0,x^1,x^2,...,x^N-1,x^N$$



          modulo $N$. This can give you at most $N$ different numbers, namely $0,...,N-1$. But the list has length $N+1$, so some number must ocure at least twice (pidgeonhole principle).



          So, let's say $x^nequiv x^mpmod N$ with $n>m$. Maybe you already know that for $gcd(x,N)=1$ there is a unique multiplicative inverse $x^-1$ so that $xcdot x^-1equiv 1pmod N$. We multiply $x^-m:=(x^-1)^m$ to both sides:



          beginalign
          x^n&equiv x^mpmod N &|cdot x^-m \
          x^ncdot x^-m&equiv x^mcdot x^-mpmod N \
          x^n-m&equiv 1pmod N \
          endalign



          Since $n,mle N$ and $n>m$ we have that $r:=n-mle N$ (actually $r<N$).






          share|cite|improve this answer























            up vote
            0
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            0
            down vote



            accepted






            Yes, indeed you need that $gcd(x,N)=1$, because otherwise the statement is not true. Look e.g. at $2^requiv 1pmod 4$, which is only true for $r=0$ but not for any positive integer. So I will assume $gcd(x,N)=1$ in the following.




            Look at the list



            $$x^0,x^1,x^2,...,x^N-1,x^N$$



            modulo $N$. This can give you at most $N$ different numbers, namely $0,...,N-1$. But the list has length $N+1$, so some number must ocure at least twice (pidgeonhole principle).



            So, let's say $x^nequiv x^mpmod N$ with $n>m$. Maybe you already know that for $gcd(x,N)=1$ there is a unique multiplicative inverse $x^-1$ so that $xcdot x^-1equiv 1pmod N$. We multiply $x^-m:=(x^-1)^m$ to both sides:



            beginalign
            x^n&equiv x^mpmod N &|cdot x^-m \
            x^ncdot x^-m&equiv x^mcdot x^-mpmod N \
            x^n-m&equiv 1pmod N \
            endalign



            Since $n,mle N$ and $n>m$ we have that $r:=n-mle N$ (actually $r<N$).






            share|cite|improve this answer













            Yes, indeed you need that $gcd(x,N)=1$, because otherwise the statement is not true. Look e.g. at $2^requiv 1pmod 4$, which is only true for $r=0$ but not for any positive integer. So I will assume $gcd(x,N)=1$ in the following.




            Look at the list



            $$x^0,x^1,x^2,...,x^N-1,x^N$$



            modulo $N$. This can give you at most $N$ different numbers, namely $0,...,N-1$. But the list has length $N+1$, so some number must ocure at least twice (pidgeonhole principle).



            So, let's say $x^nequiv x^mpmod N$ with $n>m$. Maybe you already know that for $gcd(x,N)=1$ there is a unique multiplicative inverse $x^-1$ so that $xcdot x^-1equiv 1pmod N$. We multiply $x^-m:=(x^-1)^m$ to both sides:



            beginalign
            x^n&equiv x^mpmod N &|cdot x^-m \
            x^ncdot x^-m&equiv x^mcdot x^-mpmod N \
            x^n-m&equiv 1pmod N \
            endalign



            Since $n,mle N$ and $n>m$ we have that $r:=n-mle N$ (actually $r<N$).







            share|cite|improve this answer













            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer











            answered Jul 19 at 13:28









            M. Winter

            17.7k62764




            17.7k62764




















                up vote
                0
                down vote













                Draw $N$ points numbered $v_1, cdots, v_N$ on a circle. Draw an arrow from $v_i$ to $v_j$ if $v_j equiv v_ix mod N$. Now if you start following the arrows from $v_1$ (i.e start from $v_1$, then go to $v_j$ such that there's an arrow from $v_1$ to $v_j$ etc).



                If $gcd(x,N) neq 1$, then you would end up in a rho shape (eventually land up in a circle with a tail). But otherwise $x^-1 mod N$ exists, so you must end up in a circle.



                Try to find out why this happens by actually doing it with a pen and paper for $x = 2, N = 5$ and I think you should be able to understand why this is true (hint: use pigeon-hole principle and the existence of inverse)






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote













                  Draw $N$ points numbered $v_1, cdots, v_N$ on a circle. Draw an arrow from $v_i$ to $v_j$ if $v_j equiv v_ix mod N$. Now if you start following the arrows from $v_1$ (i.e start from $v_1$, then go to $v_j$ such that there's an arrow from $v_1$ to $v_j$ etc).



                  If $gcd(x,N) neq 1$, then you would end up in a rho shape (eventually land up in a circle with a tail). But otherwise $x^-1 mod N$ exists, so you must end up in a circle.



                  Try to find out why this happens by actually doing it with a pen and paper for $x = 2, N = 5$ and I think you should be able to understand why this is true (hint: use pigeon-hole principle and the existence of inverse)






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    Draw $N$ points numbered $v_1, cdots, v_N$ on a circle. Draw an arrow from $v_i$ to $v_j$ if $v_j equiv v_ix mod N$. Now if you start following the arrows from $v_1$ (i.e start from $v_1$, then go to $v_j$ such that there's an arrow from $v_1$ to $v_j$ etc).



                    If $gcd(x,N) neq 1$, then you would end up in a rho shape (eventually land up in a circle with a tail). But otherwise $x^-1 mod N$ exists, so you must end up in a circle.



                    Try to find out why this happens by actually doing it with a pen and paper for $x = 2, N = 5$ and I think you should be able to understand why this is true (hint: use pigeon-hole principle and the existence of inverse)






                    share|cite|improve this answer













                    Draw $N$ points numbered $v_1, cdots, v_N$ on a circle. Draw an arrow from $v_i$ to $v_j$ if $v_j equiv v_ix mod N$. Now if you start following the arrows from $v_1$ (i.e start from $v_1$, then go to $v_j$ such that there's an arrow from $v_1$ to $v_j$ etc).



                    If $gcd(x,N) neq 1$, then you would end up in a rho shape (eventually land up in a circle with a tail). But otherwise $x^-1 mod N$ exists, so you must end up in a circle.



                    Try to find out why this happens by actually doing it with a pen and paper for $x = 2, N = 5$ and I think you should be able to understand why this is true (hint: use pigeon-hole principle and the existence of inverse)







                    share|cite|improve this answer













                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    answered Jul 19 at 13:23









                    alxchen

                    402320




                    402320




















                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Consider the residues of $x^0,x^1,x^2,...,x^N$ modulo $N$. (Take for example, the least positive residue.)



                        Then, there are $N+1$ residues listed above but there are only $N$ distinct residues modulo $N$.



                        So $x^iequiv x^j (textrmmod N)$.
                        Here it may be tempting to say $x^i-jequiv 1 (textrmmod N)$ but here you do need the condition that $x$ and $N$ are coprime because in general this is not true.



                        (e.g. $6^2equiv 6(textrmmod 10)$ but clearly $6notequiv 1(textrmmod 10)$)



                        And so if $x$ and $N$ are coprime, $x^j$ and $N$ are coprime as well so we can "cancel out" $x^j$ which is the equivalent of multiplying out about the inverse of $x^j$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          Consider the residues of $x^0,x^1,x^2,...,x^N$ modulo $N$. (Take for example, the least positive residue.)



                          Then, there are $N+1$ residues listed above but there are only $N$ distinct residues modulo $N$.



                          So $x^iequiv x^j (textrmmod N)$.
                          Here it may be tempting to say $x^i-jequiv 1 (textrmmod N)$ but here you do need the condition that $x$ and $N$ are coprime because in general this is not true.



                          (e.g. $6^2equiv 6(textrmmod 10)$ but clearly $6notequiv 1(textrmmod 10)$)



                          And so if $x$ and $N$ are coprime, $x^j$ and $N$ are coprime as well so we can "cancel out" $x^j$ which is the equivalent of multiplying out about the inverse of $x^j$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote









                            Consider the residues of $x^0,x^1,x^2,...,x^N$ modulo $N$. (Take for example, the least positive residue.)



                            Then, there are $N+1$ residues listed above but there are only $N$ distinct residues modulo $N$.



                            So $x^iequiv x^j (textrmmod N)$.
                            Here it may be tempting to say $x^i-jequiv 1 (textrmmod N)$ but here you do need the condition that $x$ and $N$ are coprime because in general this is not true.



                            (e.g. $6^2equiv 6(textrmmod 10)$ but clearly $6notequiv 1(textrmmod 10)$)



                            And so if $x$ and $N$ are coprime, $x^j$ and $N$ are coprime as well so we can "cancel out" $x^j$ which is the equivalent of multiplying out about the inverse of $x^j$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer













                            Consider the residues of $x^0,x^1,x^2,...,x^N$ modulo $N$. (Take for example, the least positive residue.)



                            Then, there are $N+1$ residues listed above but there are only $N$ distinct residues modulo $N$.



                            So $x^iequiv x^j (textrmmod N)$.
                            Here it may be tempting to say $x^i-jequiv 1 (textrmmod N)$ but here you do need the condition that $x$ and $N$ are coprime because in general this is not true.



                            (e.g. $6^2equiv 6(textrmmod 10)$ but clearly $6notequiv 1(textrmmod 10)$)



                            And so if $x$ and $N$ are coprime, $x^j$ and $N$ are coprime as well so we can "cancel out" $x^j$ which is the equivalent of multiplying out about the inverse of $x^j$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer













                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            answered Jul 19 at 13:29









                            daruma

                            900512




                            900512




















                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote













                                Suppose there exists $m in Bbb Z^+$ such that $x^mequiv 1mod N.$ Let $n$ be the least such $m.$



                                (1). If $1leq a<bleq n$ then $x^anot equiv x^b mod N.$ Proof: By contradiction: If $x^aequiv x^b$ let $m=a+(n-b).$ Then $$x^mequiv x^a+(n-b)equiv x^a x^n-bequiv$$ $$equiv x^bx^n-b=x^b+n-bequiv x^nequiv 1$$ but $1leq aleq a+(n-b)=m=n-(b-a)<n,$ so $1leq m<n$ so by def'n of $n$ we have $x^mnot equiv 1,$ a contradiction.



                                (2). For $1leq aleq n$ let $1leq f(a)leq N$ such that $x^aequiv f(a) mod N.$ By (1), the set $S=f(a): 1leq aleq n$ has exactly $n$ members. But $S$ is a subset of the $N$-member set $y:1leq yleq N $ so $nleq N.$






                                share|cite|improve this answer























                                • (1) implies that the function $f$ is 1-to-1. Without this we could only say that $S$ has at most $n$ members, which would be of no use.
                                  – DanielWainfleet
                                  Jul 20 at 6:18










                                • I tried to answer without the topic of multiplicative inverses $mod N$.
                                  – DanielWainfleet
                                  Jul 20 at 6:24















                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote













                                Suppose there exists $m in Bbb Z^+$ such that $x^mequiv 1mod N.$ Let $n$ be the least such $m.$



                                (1). If $1leq a<bleq n$ then $x^anot equiv x^b mod N.$ Proof: By contradiction: If $x^aequiv x^b$ let $m=a+(n-b).$ Then $$x^mequiv x^a+(n-b)equiv x^a x^n-bequiv$$ $$equiv x^bx^n-b=x^b+n-bequiv x^nequiv 1$$ but $1leq aleq a+(n-b)=m=n-(b-a)<n,$ so $1leq m<n$ so by def'n of $n$ we have $x^mnot equiv 1,$ a contradiction.



                                (2). For $1leq aleq n$ let $1leq f(a)leq N$ such that $x^aequiv f(a) mod N.$ By (1), the set $S=f(a): 1leq aleq n$ has exactly $n$ members. But $S$ is a subset of the $N$-member set $y:1leq yleq N $ so $nleq N.$






                                share|cite|improve this answer























                                • (1) implies that the function $f$ is 1-to-1. Without this we could only say that $S$ has at most $n$ members, which would be of no use.
                                  – DanielWainfleet
                                  Jul 20 at 6:18










                                • I tried to answer without the topic of multiplicative inverses $mod N$.
                                  – DanielWainfleet
                                  Jul 20 at 6:24













                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote










                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote









                                Suppose there exists $m in Bbb Z^+$ such that $x^mequiv 1mod N.$ Let $n$ be the least such $m.$



                                (1). If $1leq a<bleq n$ then $x^anot equiv x^b mod N.$ Proof: By contradiction: If $x^aequiv x^b$ let $m=a+(n-b).$ Then $$x^mequiv x^a+(n-b)equiv x^a x^n-bequiv$$ $$equiv x^bx^n-b=x^b+n-bequiv x^nequiv 1$$ but $1leq aleq a+(n-b)=m=n-(b-a)<n,$ so $1leq m<n$ so by def'n of $n$ we have $x^mnot equiv 1,$ a contradiction.



                                (2). For $1leq aleq n$ let $1leq f(a)leq N$ such that $x^aequiv f(a) mod N.$ By (1), the set $S=f(a): 1leq aleq n$ has exactly $n$ members. But $S$ is a subset of the $N$-member set $y:1leq yleq N $ so $nleq N.$






                                share|cite|improve this answer















                                Suppose there exists $m in Bbb Z^+$ such that $x^mequiv 1mod N.$ Let $n$ be the least such $m.$



                                (1). If $1leq a<bleq n$ then $x^anot equiv x^b mod N.$ Proof: By contradiction: If $x^aequiv x^b$ let $m=a+(n-b).$ Then $$x^mequiv x^a+(n-b)equiv x^a x^n-bequiv$$ $$equiv x^bx^n-b=x^b+n-bequiv x^nequiv 1$$ but $1leq aleq a+(n-b)=m=n-(b-a)<n,$ so $1leq m<n$ so by def'n of $n$ we have $x^mnot equiv 1,$ a contradiction.



                                (2). For $1leq aleq n$ let $1leq f(a)leq N$ such that $x^aequiv f(a) mod N.$ By (1), the set $S=f(a): 1leq aleq n$ has exactly $n$ members. But $S$ is a subset of the $N$-member set $y:1leq yleq N $ so $nleq N.$







                                share|cite|improve this answer















                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer








                                edited Jul 20 at 6:15


























                                answered Jul 20 at 6:10









                                DanielWainfleet

                                31.7k31643




                                31.7k31643











                                • (1) implies that the function $f$ is 1-to-1. Without this we could only say that $S$ has at most $n$ members, which would be of no use.
                                  – DanielWainfleet
                                  Jul 20 at 6:18










                                • I tried to answer without the topic of multiplicative inverses $mod N$.
                                  – DanielWainfleet
                                  Jul 20 at 6:24

















                                • (1) implies that the function $f$ is 1-to-1. Without this we could only say that $S$ has at most $n$ members, which would be of no use.
                                  – DanielWainfleet
                                  Jul 20 at 6:18










                                • I tried to answer without the topic of multiplicative inverses $mod N$.
                                  – DanielWainfleet
                                  Jul 20 at 6:24
















                                (1) implies that the function $f$ is 1-to-1. Without this we could only say that $S$ has at most $n$ members, which would be of no use.
                                – DanielWainfleet
                                Jul 20 at 6:18




                                (1) implies that the function $f$ is 1-to-1. Without this we could only say that $S$ has at most $n$ members, which would be of no use.
                                – DanielWainfleet
                                Jul 20 at 6:18












                                I tried to answer without the topic of multiplicative inverses $mod N$.
                                – DanielWainfleet
                                Jul 20 at 6:24





                                I tried to answer without the topic of multiplicative inverses $mod N$.
                                – DanielWainfleet
                                Jul 20 at 6:24













                                 

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