In $mathbb R^n$, why does $f_k=chi_mathbf x$ not converge globally in measure to $f=1$?

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In $mathbb R^n$, why does $f_k=chi_mathbf x: $ not converge globally in measure to $f=1$? I think as $kto +infty$, $f_k = 1$ in a ball of radius $+infty$ centered at $0$.







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    In $mathbb R^n$, why does $f_k=chi_mathbf x: $ not converge globally in measure to $f=1$? I think as $kto +infty$, $f_k = 1$ in a ball of radius $+infty$ centered at $0$.







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      In $mathbb R^n$, why does $f_k=chi_mathbf x: $ not converge globally in measure to $f=1$? I think as $kto +infty$, $f_k = 1$ in a ball of radius $+infty$ centered at $0$.







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      In $mathbb R^n$, why does $f_k=chi_mathbf x: $ not converge globally in measure to $f=1$? I think as $kto +infty$, $f_k = 1$ in a ball of radius $+infty$ centered at $0$.









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      asked Jul 16 at 21:04









      user398843

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          Because for any $1>epsilon>0$ and any $k$:
          $$mu(f-f_k) = mu(mathbbR^n)-mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = infty $$
          As $mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = mu(x)<infty$



          Where $mu$ is Lebesgue's measure.






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          • Then we take the limit?
            – user398843
            Jul 16 at 21:17










          • @user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
            – Rumpelstiltskin
            Jul 16 at 21:17











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          Because for any $1>epsilon>0$ and any $k$:
          $$mu(f-f_k) = mu(mathbbR^n)-mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = infty $$
          As $mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = mu(x)<infty$



          Where $mu$ is Lebesgue's measure.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Then we take the limit?
            – user398843
            Jul 16 at 21:17










          • @user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
            – Rumpelstiltskin
            Jul 16 at 21:17















          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          Because for any $1>epsilon>0$ and any $k$:
          $$mu(f-f_k) = mu(mathbbR^n)-mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = infty $$
          As $mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = mu(x)<infty$



          Where $mu$ is Lebesgue's measure.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Then we take the limit?
            – user398843
            Jul 16 at 21:17










          • @user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
            – Rumpelstiltskin
            Jul 16 at 21:17













          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted






          Because for any $1>epsilon>0$ and any $k$:
          $$mu(f-f_k) = mu(mathbbR^n)-mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = infty $$
          As $mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = mu(x)<infty$



          Where $mu$ is Lebesgue's measure.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          Because for any $1>epsilon>0$ and any $k$:
          $$mu(f-f_k) = mu(mathbbR^n)-mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = infty $$
          As $mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = mu(x)<infty$



          Where $mu$ is Lebesgue's measure.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 16 at 21:16


























          answered Jul 16 at 21:09









          Rumpelstiltskin

          1,424315




          1,424315











          • Then we take the limit?
            – user398843
            Jul 16 at 21:17










          • @user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
            – Rumpelstiltskin
            Jul 16 at 21:17

















          • Then we take the limit?
            – user398843
            Jul 16 at 21:17










          • @user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
            – Rumpelstiltskin
            Jul 16 at 21:17
















          Then we take the limit?
          – user398843
          Jul 16 at 21:17




          Then we take the limit?
          – user398843
          Jul 16 at 21:17












          @user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
          – Rumpelstiltskin
          Jul 16 at 21:17





          @user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
          – Rumpelstiltskin
          Jul 16 at 21:17













           

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