In $mathbb R^n$, why does $f_k=chi_mathbf x$ not converge globally in measure to $f=1$?
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In $mathbb R^n$, why does $f_k=chi_mathbf x: $ not converge globally in measure to $f=1$? I think as $kto +infty$, $f_k = 1$ in a ball of radius $+infty$ centered at $0$.
real-analysis
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up vote
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down vote
favorite
In $mathbb R^n$, why does $f_k=chi_mathbf x: $ not converge globally in measure to $f=1$? I think as $kto +infty$, $f_k = 1$ in a ball of radius $+infty$ centered at $0$.
real-analysis
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
In $mathbb R^n$, why does $f_k=chi_mathbf x: $ not converge globally in measure to $f=1$? I think as $kto +infty$, $f_k = 1$ in a ball of radius $+infty$ centered at $0$.
real-analysis
In $mathbb R^n$, why does $f_k=chi_mathbf x: $ not converge globally in measure to $f=1$? I think as $kto +infty$, $f_k = 1$ in a ball of radius $+infty$ centered at $0$.
real-analysis
asked Jul 16 at 21:04
user398843
394215
394215
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1 Answer
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Because for any $1>epsilon>0$ and any $k$:
$$mu(f-f_k) = mu(mathbbR^n)-mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = infty $$
As $mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = mu(x)<infty$
Where $mu$ is Lebesgue's measure.
Then we take the limit?
– user398843
Jul 16 at 21:17
@user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
– Rumpelstiltskin
Jul 16 at 21:17
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Because for any $1>epsilon>0$ and any $k$:
$$mu(f-f_k) = mu(mathbbR^n)-mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = infty $$
As $mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = mu(x)<infty$
Where $mu$ is Lebesgue's measure.
Then we take the limit?
– user398843
Jul 16 at 21:17
@user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
– Rumpelstiltskin
Jul 16 at 21:17
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Because for any $1>epsilon>0$ and any $k$:
$$mu(f-f_k) = mu(mathbbR^n)-mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = infty $$
As $mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = mu(x)<infty$
Where $mu$ is Lebesgue's measure.
Then we take the limit?
– user398843
Jul 16 at 21:17
@user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
– Rumpelstiltskin
Jul 16 at 21:17
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Because for any $1>epsilon>0$ and any $k$:
$$mu(f-f_k) = mu(mathbbR^n)-mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = infty $$
As $mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = mu(x)<infty$
Where $mu$ is Lebesgue's measure.
Because for any $1>epsilon>0$ and any $k$:
$$mu(f-f_k) = mu(mathbbR^n)-mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = infty $$
As $mu(xinmathbbR^n: ) = mu(x)<infty$
Where $mu$ is Lebesgue's measure.
edited Jul 16 at 21:16
answered Jul 16 at 21:09


Rumpelstiltskin
1,424315
1,424315
Then we take the limit?
– user398843
Jul 16 at 21:17
@user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
– Rumpelstiltskin
Jul 16 at 21:17
add a comment |Â
Then we take the limit?
– user398843
Jul 16 at 21:17
@user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
– Rumpelstiltskin
Jul 16 at 21:17
Then we take the limit?
– user398843
Jul 16 at 21:17
Then we take the limit?
– user398843
Jul 16 at 21:17
@user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
– Rumpelstiltskin
Jul 16 at 21:17
@user398843 If you take limit of infinities, what do you get? Infinity.
– Rumpelstiltskin
Jul 16 at 21:17
add a comment |Â
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