Is interior points of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ is always a limit point of $E$?

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According to Rudin a point $p$ is said to be a limit point of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ if every neighborhood $N$ of $p$ contains a point $q neq 0$ such that $qin E$.



A point a point $p$ is said to be an interior point of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ if there exist a neighborhood $N$ of $p$ such that $N subset E$.



Examples given shows that there may be limit points which are not interior points : $(a,b)$. There may be sets which does not contain any of its limit points and no point of it is an interior point.



Is interior points of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ is always a limit point of $E$ ? If $p$ is an interior point of $E$ then there exist a a neighborhood $N$ of radius $r$ such that $N subset E$. Then any neighborhood of $p$ having radius less than $r$ will be contained in $N$ and hence contained in $E$. Any neighborhood of $p$ having radius greater than $r$ contains $N$ and hence intersect $E$ at some points other than $p$. Hence $p$ is a limit point of $E$. Is my argument is correct ?



Generally - In topology- this proof will not work as it does not have radius concept. But I want a counter example from metric space if I am wrong. Particularly a subset $E$ of $mathbbR$ which has an interior point which is not a limit point of $E$.







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    According to Rudin a point $p$ is said to be a limit point of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ if every neighborhood $N$ of $p$ contains a point $q neq 0$ such that $qin E$.



    A point a point $p$ is said to be an interior point of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ if there exist a neighborhood $N$ of $p$ such that $N subset E$.



    Examples given shows that there may be limit points which are not interior points : $(a,b)$. There may be sets which does not contain any of its limit points and no point of it is an interior point.



    Is interior points of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ is always a limit point of $E$ ? If $p$ is an interior point of $E$ then there exist a a neighborhood $N$ of radius $r$ such that $N subset E$. Then any neighborhood of $p$ having radius less than $r$ will be contained in $N$ and hence contained in $E$. Any neighborhood of $p$ having radius greater than $r$ contains $N$ and hence intersect $E$ at some points other than $p$. Hence $p$ is a limit point of $E$. Is my argument is correct ?



    Generally - In topology- this proof will not work as it does not have radius concept. But I want a counter example from metric space if I am wrong. Particularly a subset $E$ of $mathbbR$ which has an interior point which is not a limit point of $E$.







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      According to Rudin a point $p$ is said to be a limit point of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ if every neighborhood $N$ of $p$ contains a point $q neq 0$ such that $qin E$.



      A point a point $p$ is said to be an interior point of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ if there exist a neighborhood $N$ of $p$ such that $N subset E$.



      Examples given shows that there may be limit points which are not interior points : $(a,b)$. There may be sets which does not contain any of its limit points and no point of it is an interior point.



      Is interior points of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ is always a limit point of $E$ ? If $p$ is an interior point of $E$ then there exist a a neighborhood $N$ of radius $r$ such that $N subset E$. Then any neighborhood of $p$ having radius less than $r$ will be contained in $N$ and hence contained in $E$. Any neighborhood of $p$ having radius greater than $r$ contains $N$ and hence intersect $E$ at some points other than $p$. Hence $p$ is a limit point of $E$. Is my argument is correct ?



      Generally - In topology- this proof will not work as it does not have radius concept. But I want a counter example from metric space if I am wrong. Particularly a subset $E$ of $mathbbR$ which has an interior point which is not a limit point of $E$.







      share|cite|improve this question













      According to Rudin a point $p$ is said to be a limit point of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ if every neighborhood $N$ of $p$ contains a point $q neq 0$ such that $qin E$.



      A point a point $p$ is said to be an interior point of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ if there exist a neighborhood $N$ of $p$ such that $N subset E$.



      Examples given shows that there may be limit points which are not interior points : $(a,b)$. There may be sets which does not contain any of its limit points and no point of it is an interior point.



      Is interior points of a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ is always a limit point of $E$ ? If $p$ is an interior point of $E$ then there exist a a neighborhood $N$ of radius $r$ such that $N subset E$. Then any neighborhood of $p$ having radius less than $r$ will be contained in $N$ and hence contained in $E$. Any neighborhood of $p$ having radius greater than $r$ contains $N$ and hence intersect $E$ at some points other than $p$. Hence $p$ is a limit point of $E$. Is my argument is correct ?



      Generally - In topology- this proof will not work as it does not have radius concept. But I want a counter example from metric space if I am wrong. Particularly a subset $E$ of $mathbbR$ which has an interior point which is not a limit point of $E$.









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      edited Jul 25 at 9:56
























      asked Jul 25 at 9:51









      Madhu

      699922




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          If you are asking about $mathbbR$ with the (standard) Euclidean metric, then the answer is yes:



          Suppose that $XsubseteqmathbbR$ and that $xin X$ is an interior point. Then, by the definition of an interior point, there is some open set $U$ so that $xin U$ and $Usubseteq X$. Since the topology on $mathbbR$ is generated by open intervals, we know that there is an open interval $I$ so that $xin I$, $Isubseteq Usubseteq X$. Observe that for $n$ sufficiently large, $x+frac1n$ is a sequence of points distinct from $x$ and in $I$ (and hence in $X$) that converge to $x$. Therefore, $x$ is a limit point.



          The reason that the argument above worked is that there are infinitely many points in any open interval. If, instead, we use a different metric, the answer to your question is no:



          Consider the discrete metric on $mathbbR$, i.e.,
          $$
          d(x,y)=begincases0&x=y\
          1&xnot=y
          endcases.
          $$
          Suppose that $XsubseteqmathbbR$ and that $xin X$. We observe that $x$ is an interior point because the open ball $Bleft(x,frac12right)=xsubseteq X$. On the other hand, $x$ is not a limit point because the open ball $Bleft(x,frac12right)$ is an open set containing $x$ and no other points of $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Hence for any metric space with a metric other than discrete metric interior points should be limit points.
            – Madhu
            Jul 25 at 11:49











          • And without isolated points (in the chosen metric)
            – Michael Burr
            Jul 25 at 12:34










          Your Answer




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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          If you are asking about $mathbbR$ with the (standard) Euclidean metric, then the answer is yes:



          Suppose that $XsubseteqmathbbR$ and that $xin X$ is an interior point. Then, by the definition of an interior point, there is some open set $U$ so that $xin U$ and $Usubseteq X$. Since the topology on $mathbbR$ is generated by open intervals, we know that there is an open interval $I$ so that $xin I$, $Isubseteq Usubseteq X$. Observe that for $n$ sufficiently large, $x+frac1n$ is a sequence of points distinct from $x$ and in $I$ (and hence in $X$) that converge to $x$. Therefore, $x$ is a limit point.



          The reason that the argument above worked is that there are infinitely many points in any open interval. If, instead, we use a different metric, the answer to your question is no:



          Consider the discrete metric on $mathbbR$, i.e.,
          $$
          d(x,y)=begincases0&x=y\
          1&xnot=y
          endcases.
          $$
          Suppose that $XsubseteqmathbbR$ and that $xin X$. We observe that $x$ is an interior point because the open ball $Bleft(x,frac12right)=xsubseteq X$. On the other hand, $x$ is not a limit point because the open ball $Bleft(x,frac12right)$ is an open set containing $x$ and no other points of $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Hence for any metric space with a metric other than discrete metric interior points should be limit points.
            – Madhu
            Jul 25 at 11:49











          • And without isolated points (in the chosen metric)
            – Michael Burr
            Jul 25 at 12:34














          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          If you are asking about $mathbbR$ with the (standard) Euclidean metric, then the answer is yes:



          Suppose that $XsubseteqmathbbR$ and that $xin X$ is an interior point. Then, by the definition of an interior point, there is some open set $U$ so that $xin U$ and $Usubseteq X$. Since the topology on $mathbbR$ is generated by open intervals, we know that there is an open interval $I$ so that $xin I$, $Isubseteq Usubseteq X$. Observe that for $n$ sufficiently large, $x+frac1n$ is a sequence of points distinct from $x$ and in $I$ (and hence in $X$) that converge to $x$. Therefore, $x$ is a limit point.



          The reason that the argument above worked is that there are infinitely many points in any open interval. If, instead, we use a different metric, the answer to your question is no:



          Consider the discrete metric on $mathbbR$, i.e.,
          $$
          d(x,y)=begincases0&x=y\
          1&xnot=y
          endcases.
          $$
          Suppose that $XsubseteqmathbbR$ and that $xin X$. We observe that $x$ is an interior point because the open ball $Bleft(x,frac12right)=xsubseteq X$. On the other hand, $x$ is not a limit point because the open ball $Bleft(x,frac12right)$ is an open set containing $x$ and no other points of $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Hence for any metric space with a metric other than discrete metric interior points should be limit points.
            – Madhu
            Jul 25 at 11:49











          • And without isolated points (in the chosen metric)
            – Michael Burr
            Jul 25 at 12:34












          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted






          If you are asking about $mathbbR$ with the (standard) Euclidean metric, then the answer is yes:



          Suppose that $XsubseteqmathbbR$ and that $xin X$ is an interior point. Then, by the definition of an interior point, there is some open set $U$ so that $xin U$ and $Usubseteq X$. Since the topology on $mathbbR$ is generated by open intervals, we know that there is an open interval $I$ so that $xin I$, $Isubseteq Usubseteq X$. Observe that for $n$ sufficiently large, $x+frac1n$ is a sequence of points distinct from $x$ and in $I$ (and hence in $X$) that converge to $x$. Therefore, $x$ is a limit point.



          The reason that the argument above worked is that there are infinitely many points in any open interval. If, instead, we use a different metric, the answer to your question is no:



          Consider the discrete metric on $mathbbR$, i.e.,
          $$
          d(x,y)=begincases0&x=y\
          1&xnot=y
          endcases.
          $$
          Suppose that $XsubseteqmathbbR$ and that $xin X$. We observe that $x$ is an interior point because the open ball $Bleft(x,frac12right)=xsubseteq X$. On the other hand, $x$ is not a limit point because the open ball $Bleft(x,frac12right)$ is an open set containing $x$ and no other points of $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          If you are asking about $mathbbR$ with the (standard) Euclidean metric, then the answer is yes:



          Suppose that $XsubseteqmathbbR$ and that $xin X$ is an interior point. Then, by the definition of an interior point, there is some open set $U$ so that $xin U$ and $Usubseteq X$. Since the topology on $mathbbR$ is generated by open intervals, we know that there is an open interval $I$ so that $xin I$, $Isubseteq Usubseteq X$. Observe that for $n$ sufficiently large, $x+frac1n$ is a sequence of points distinct from $x$ and in $I$ (and hence in $X$) that converge to $x$. Therefore, $x$ is a limit point.



          The reason that the argument above worked is that there are infinitely many points in any open interval. If, instead, we use a different metric, the answer to your question is no:



          Consider the discrete metric on $mathbbR$, i.e.,
          $$
          d(x,y)=begincases0&x=y\
          1&xnot=y
          endcases.
          $$
          Suppose that $XsubseteqmathbbR$ and that $xin X$. We observe that $x$ is an interior point because the open ball $Bleft(x,frac12right)=xsubseteq X$. On the other hand, $x$ is not a limit point because the open ball $Bleft(x,frac12right)$ is an open set containing $x$ and no other points of $X$.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 25 at 10:01









          Michael Burr

          25.6k13262




          25.6k13262











          • Hence for any metric space with a metric other than discrete metric interior points should be limit points.
            – Madhu
            Jul 25 at 11:49











          • And without isolated points (in the chosen metric)
            – Michael Burr
            Jul 25 at 12:34
















          • Hence for any metric space with a metric other than discrete metric interior points should be limit points.
            – Madhu
            Jul 25 at 11:49











          • And without isolated points (in the chosen metric)
            – Michael Burr
            Jul 25 at 12:34















          Hence for any metric space with a metric other than discrete metric interior points should be limit points.
          – Madhu
          Jul 25 at 11:49





          Hence for any metric space with a metric other than discrete metric interior points should be limit points.
          – Madhu
          Jul 25 at 11:49













          And without isolated points (in the chosen metric)
          – Michael Burr
          Jul 25 at 12:34




          And without isolated points (in the chosen metric)
          – Michael Burr
          Jul 25 at 12:34












           

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