Is the operator norm invariant under a renorming of the Banach space?
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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Let $I colon X to Y$ a non-isometric isomorphism between Banach spaces. Let $T colon X to X$ be a bounded operator. Do we have the equality
$$
|T|_B(X)
=|ITI^-1|_B(Y) ?
$$
Here $B(X)$ is the space of bounded linear operators on $X$. Here "isomorphism" means bounded bijective linear map with bounded inverse.
functional-analysis banach-spaces normed-spaces
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up vote
2
down vote
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Let $I colon X to Y$ a non-isometric isomorphism between Banach spaces. Let $T colon X to X$ be a bounded operator. Do we have the equality
$$
|T|_B(X)
=|ITI^-1|_B(Y) ?
$$
Here $B(X)$ is the space of bounded linear operators on $X$. Here "isomorphism" means bounded bijective linear map with bounded inverse.
functional-analysis banach-spaces normed-spaces
Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
– mechanodroid
Jul 18 at 19:37
$I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
– Zouba
Jul 18 at 19:44
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up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Let $I colon X to Y$ a non-isometric isomorphism between Banach spaces. Let $T colon X to X$ be a bounded operator. Do we have the equality
$$
|T|_B(X)
=|ITI^-1|_B(Y) ?
$$
Here $B(X)$ is the space of bounded linear operators on $X$. Here "isomorphism" means bounded bijective linear map with bounded inverse.
functional-analysis banach-spaces normed-spaces
Let $I colon X to Y$ a non-isometric isomorphism between Banach spaces. Let $T colon X to X$ be a bounded operator. Do we have the equality
$$
|T|_B(X)
=|ITI^-1|_B(Y) ?
$$
Here $B(X)$ is the space of bounded linear operators on $X$. Here "isomorphism" means bounded bijective linear map with bounded inverse.
functional-analysis banach-spaces normed-spaces
edited Jul 18 at 19:43
asked Jul 18 at 19:22
Zouba
883517
883517
Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
– mechanodroid
Jul 18 at 19:37
$I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
– Zouba
Jul 18 at 19:44
add a comment |Â
Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
– mechanodroid
Jul 18 at 19:37
$I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
– Zouba
Jul 18 at 19:44
Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
– mechanodroid
Jul 18 at 19:37
Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
– mechanodroid
Jul 18 at 19:37
$I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
– Zouba
Jul 18 at 19:44
$I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
– Zouba
Jul 18 at 19:44
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
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In general, we don't have $lVert TrVert_B(X) = lVert ITI^-1rVert_B(Y)$. Let $X = mathbbR^2$ endowed with the Euclidean norm, $Y = mathbbR^2$ endowed with an $ell^p$-norm for $p neq 2$, $I$ the identity and $T$ a rotation by an angle not an integer multiple of $pi/2$. On $X$, $T$ is an isometry, but on $Y$ its norm is greater than $1$.
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The answer is no.
Consider the Banach space $X = (mathbbR^2, |cdot|_infty)$ and let $T : X to X$ be given as $T = beginbmatrix2 & 3 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$.
Then
$$|T(x,y)|_infty = |(2x + 3y, y)|_infty = maxy le 2|x| + 3|y| le 5|(x,y)|_infty$$
and $T(1,1) = (5,1)$ so we conclude $|T| = 5$.
Now we shall diagonalize $T$. Define $I : X to X$ as $I = beginbmatrix1 & 1 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$ which is an isomorphism, but it is not isometric because $I(1,1) = (2,1)$.
Then $$ITI^-1 = beginbmatrix 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$$
so $|ITI^-1| = 2$.
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
In general, we don't have $lVert TrVert_B(X) = lVert ITI^-1rVert_B(Y)$. Let $X = mathbbR^2$ endowed with the Euclidean norm, $Y = mathbbR^2$ endowed with an $ell^p$-norm for $p neq 2$, $I$ the identity and $T$ a rotation by an angle not an integer multiple of $pi/2$. On $X$, $T$ is an isometry, but on $Y$ its norm is greater than $1$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
In general, we don't have $lVert TrVert_B(X) = lVert ITI^-1rVert_B(Y)$. Let $X = mathbbR^2$ endowed with the Euclidean norm, $Y = mathbbR^2$ endowed with an $ell^p$-norm for $p neq 2$, $I$ the identity and $T$ a rotation by an angle not an integer multiple of $pi/2$. On $X$, $T$ is an isometry, but on $Y$ its norm is greater than $1$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
In general, we don't have $lVert TrVert_B(X) = lVert ITI^-1rVert_B(Y)$. Let $X = mathbbR^2$ endowed with the Euclidean norm, $Y = mathbbR^2$ endowed with an $ell^p$-norm for $p neq 2$, $I$ the identity and $T$ a rotation by an angle not an integer multiple of $pi/2$. On $X$, $T$ is an isometry, but on $Y$ its norm is greater than $1$.
In general, we don't have $lVert TrVert_B(X) = lVert ITI^-1rVert_B(Y)$. Let $X = mathbbR^2$ endowed with the Euclidean norm, $Y = mathbbR^2$ endowed with an $ell^p$-norm for $p neq 2$, $I$ the identity and $T$ a rotation by an angle not an integer multiple of $pi/2$. On $X$, $T$ is an isometry, but on $Y$ its norm is greater than $1$.
answered Jul 18 at 19:54


Daniel Fischer♦
171k16154274
171k16154274
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add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
The answer is no.
Consider the Banach space $X = (mathbbR^2, |cdot|_infty)$ and let $T : X to X$ be given as $T = beginbmatrix2 & 3 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$.
Then
$$|T(x,y)|_infty = |(2x + 3y, y)|_infty = maxy le 2|x| + 3|y| le 5|(x,y)|_infty$$
and $T(1,1) = (5,1)$ so we conclude $|T| = 5$.
Now we shall diagonalize $T$. Define $I : X to X$ as $I = beginbmatrix1 & 1 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$ which is an isomorphism, but it is not isometric because $I(1,1) = (2,1)$.
Then $$ITI^-1 = beginbmatrix 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$$
so $|ITI^-1| = 2$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
The answer is no.
Consider the Banach space $X = (mathbbR^2, |cdot|_infty)$ and let $T : X to X$ be given as $T = beginbmatrix2 & 3 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$.
Then
$$|T(x,y)|_infty = |(2x + 3y, y)|_infty = maxy le 2|x| + 3|y| le 5|(x,y)|_infty$$
and $T(1,1) = (5,1)$ so we conclude $|T| = 5$.
Now we shall diagonalize $T$. Define $I : X to X$ as $I = beginbmatrix1 & 1 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$ which is an isomorphism, but it is not isometric because $I(1,1) = (2,1)$.
Then $$ITI^-1 = beginbmatrix 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$$
so $|ITI^-1| = 2$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
The answer is no.
Consider the Banach space $X = (mathbbR^2, |cdot|_infty)$ and let $T : X to X$ be given as $T = beginbmatrix2 & 3 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$.
Then
$$|T(x,y)|_infty = |(2x + 3y, y)|_infty = maxy le 2|x| + 3|y| le 5|(x,y)|_infty$$
and $T(1,1) = (5,1)$ so we conclude $|T| = 5$.
Now we shall diagonalize $T$. Define $I : X to X$ as $I = beginbmatrix1 & 1 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$ which is an isomorphism, but it is not isometric because $I(1,1) = (2,1)$.
Then $$ITI^-1 = beginbmatrix 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$$
so $|ITI^-1| = 2$.
The answer is no.
Consider the Banach space $X = (mathbbR^2, |cdot|_infty)$ and let $T : X to X$ be given as $T = beginbmatrix2 & 3 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$.
Then
$$|T(x,y)|_infty = |(2x + 3y, y)|_infty = maxy le 2|x| + 3|y| le 5|(x,y)|_infty$$
and $T(1,1) = (5,1)$ so we conclude $|T| = 5$.
Now we shall diagonalize $T$. Define $I : X to X$ as $I = beginbmatrix1 & 1 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$ which is an isomorphism, but it is not isometric because $I(1,1) = (2,1)$.
Then $$ITI^-1 = beginbmatrix 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$$
so $|ITI^-1| = 2$.
answered Jul 18 at 21:46
mechanodroid
22.2k52041
22.2k52041
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Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
– mechanodroid
Jul 18 at 19:37
$I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
– Zouba
Jul 18 at 19:44