Is the operator norm invariant under a renorming of the Banach space?

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Let $I colon X to Y$ a non-isometric isomorphism between Banach spaces. Let $T colon X to X$ be a bounded operator. Do we have the equality
$$
|T|_B(X)
=|ITI^-1|_B(Y) ?
$$
Here $B(X)$ is the space of bounded linear operators on $X$. Here "isomorphism" means bounded bijective linear map with bounded inverse.







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  • Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
    – mechanodroid
    Jul 18 at 19:37










  • $I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
    – Zouba
    Jul 18 at 19:44














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $I colon X to Y$ a non-isometric isomorphism between Banach spaces. Let $T colon X to X$ be a bounded operator. Do we have the equality
$$
|T|_B(X)
=|ITI^-1|_B(Y) ?
$$
Here $B(X)$ is the space of bounded linear operators on $X$. Here "isomorphism" means bounded bijective linear map with bounded inverse.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
    – mechanodroid
    Jul 18 at 19:37










  • $I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
    – Zouba
    Jul 18 at 19:44












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let $I colon X to Y$ a non-isometric isomorphism between Banach spaces. Let $T colon X to X$ be a bounded operator. Do we have the equality
$$
|T|_B(X)
=|ITI^-1|_B(Y) ?
$$
Here $B(X)$ is the space of bounded linear operators on $X$. Here "isomorphism" means bounded bijective linear map with bounded inverse.







share|cite|improve this question













Let $I colon X to Y$ a non-isometric isomorphism between Banach spaces. Let $T colon X to X$ be a bounded operator. Do we have the equality
$$
|T|_B(X)
=|ITI^-1|_B(Y) ?
$$
Here $B(X)$ is the space of bounded linear operators on $X$. Here "isomorphism" means bounded bijective linear map with bounded inverse.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




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edited Jul 18 at 19:43
























asked Jul 18 at 19:22









Zouba

883517




883517











  • Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
    – mechanodroid
    Jul 18 at 19:37










  • $I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
    – Zouba
    Jul 18 at 19:44
















  • Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
    – mechanodroid
    Jul 18 at 19:37










  • $I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
    – Zouba
    Jul 18 at 19:44















Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
– mechanodroid
Jul 18 at 19:37




Must $I$ or $ITI^-1$ be bounded?
– mechanodroid
Jul 18 at 19:37












$I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
– Zouba
Jul 18 at 19:44




$I$ and $I^-1$ are bounded.
– Zouba
Jul 18 at 19:44










2 Answers
2






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In general, we don't have $lVert TrVert_B(X) = lVert ITI^-1rVert_B(Y)$. Let $X = mathbbR^2$ endowed with the Euclidean norm, $Y = mathbbR^2$ endowed with an $ell^p$-norm for $p neq 2$, $I$ the identity and $T$ a rotation by an angle not an integer multiple of $pi/2$. On $X$, $T$ is an isometry, but on $Y$ its norm is greater than $1$.






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    The answer is no.



    Consider the Banach space $X = (mathbbR^2, |cdot|_infty)$ and let $T : X to X$ be given as $T = beginbmatrix2 & 3 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$.



    Then



    $$|T(x,y)|_infty = |(2x + 3y, y)|_infty = maxy le 2|x| + 3|y| le 5|(x,y)|_infty$$



    and $T(1,1) = (5,1)$ so we conclude $|T| = 5$.



    Now we shall diagonalize $T$. Define $I : X to X$ as $I = beginbmatrix1 & 1 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$ which is an isomorphism, but it is not isometric because $I(1,1) = (2,1)$.



    Then $$ITI^-1 = beginbmatrix 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$$



    so $|ITI^-1| = 2$.






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      5
      down vote



      accepted










      In general, we don't have $lVert TrVert_B(X) = lVert ITI^-1rVert_B(Y)$. Let $X = mathbbR^2$ endowed with the Euclidean norm, $Y = mathbbR^2$ endowed with an $ell^p$-norm for $p neq 2$, $I$ the identity and $T$ a rotation by an angle not an integer multiple of $pi/2$. On $X$, $T$ is an isometry, but on $Y$ its norm is greater than $1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        5
        down vote



        accepted










        In general, we don't have $lVert TrVert_B(X) = lVert ITI^-1rVert_B(Y)$. Let $X = mathbbR^2$ endowed with the Euclidean norm, $Y = mathbbR^2$ endowed with an $ell^p$-norm for $p neq 2$, $I$ the identity and $T$ a rotation by an angle not an integer multiple of $pi/2$. On $X$, $T$ is an isometry, but on $Y$ its norm is greater than $1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          5
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          5
          down vote



          accepted






          In general, we don't have $lVert TrVert_B(X) = lVert ITI^-1rVert_B(Y)$. Let $X = mathbbR^2$ endowed with the Euclidean norm, $Y = mathbbR^2$ endowed with an $ell^p$-norm for $p neq 2$, $I$ the identity and $T$ a rotation by an angle not an integer multiple of $pi/2$. On $X$, $T$ is an isometry, but on $Y$ its norm is greater than $1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          In general, we don't have $lVert TrVert_B(X) = lVert ITI^-1rVert_B(Y)$. Let $X = mathbbR^2$ endowed with the Euclidean norm, $Y = mathbbR^2$ endowed with an $ell^p$-norm for $p neq 2$, $I$ the identity and $T$ a rotation by an angle not an integer multiple of $pi/2$. On $X$, $T$ is an isometry, but on $Y$ its norm is greater than $1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 18 at 19:54









          Daniel Fischer♦

          171k16154274




          171k16154274




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              The answer is no.



              Consider the Banach space $X = (mathbbR^2, |cdot|_infty)$ and let $T : X to X$ be given as $T = beginbmatrix2 & 3 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$.



              Then



              $$|T(x,y)|_infty = |(2x + 3y, y)|_infty = maxy le 2|x| + 3|y| le 5|(x,y)|_infty$$



              and $T(1,1) = (5,1)$ so we conclude $|T| = 5$.



              Now we shall diagonalize $T$. Define $I : X to X$ as $I = beginbmatrix1 & 1 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$ which is an isomorphism, but it is not isometric because $I(1,1) = (2,1)$.



              Then $$ITI^-1 = beginbmatrix 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$$



              so $|ITI^-1| = 2$.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                The answer is no.



                Consider the Banach space $X = (mathbbR^2, |cdot|_infty)$ and let $T : X to X$ be given as $T = beginbmatrix2 & 3 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$.



                Then



                $$|T(x,y)|_infty = |(2x + 3y, y)|_infty = maxy le 2|x| + 3|y| le 5|(x,y)|_infty$$



                and $T(1,1) = (5,1)$ so we conclude $|T| = 5$.



                Now we shall diagonalize $T$. Define $I : X to X$ as $I = beginbmatrix1 & 1 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$ which is an isomorphism, but it is not isometric because $I(1,1) = (2,1)$.



                Then $$ITI^-1 = beginbmatrix 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$$



                so $|ITI^-1| = 2$.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  The answer is no.



                  Consider the Banach space $X = (mathbbR^2, |cdot|_infty)$ and let $T : X to X$ be given as $T = beginbmatrix2 & 3 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$.



                  Then



                  $$|T(x,y)|_infty = |(2x + 3y, y)|_infty = maxy le 2|x| + 3|y| le 5|(x,y)|_infty$$



                  and $T(1,1) = (5,1)$ so we conclude $|T| = 5$.



                  Now we shall diagonalize $T$. Define $I : X to X$ as $I = beginbmatrix1 & 1 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$ which is an isomorphism, but it is not isometric because $I(1,1) = (2,1)$.



                  Then $$ITI^-1 = beginbmatrix 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$$



                  so $|ITI^-1| = 2$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  The answer is no.



                  Consider the Banach space $X = (mathbbR^2, |cdot|_infty)$ and let $T : X to X$ be given as $T = beginbmatrix2 & 3 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$.



                  Then



                  $$|T(x,y)|_infty = |(2x + 3y, y)|_infty = maxy le 2|x| + 3|y| le 5|(x,y)|_infty$$



                  and $T(1,1) = (5,1)$ so we conclude $|T| = 5$.



                  Now we shall diagonalize $T$. Define $I : X to X$ as $I = beginbmatrix1 & 1 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$ which is an isomorphism, but it is not isometric because $I(1,1) = (2,1)$.



                  Then $$ITI^-1 = beginbmatrix 2 & 0 \ 0 & 1endbmatrix$$



                  so $|ITI^-1| = 2$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Jul 18 at 21:46









                  mechanodroid

                  22.2k52041




                  22.2k52041






















                       

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