Mikhlin multiplier theorem

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The Mikhlin multiplier states the following:



Let $m : mathbbR^n backslash 0 rightarrow mathbbC$ satisfy the following:



$$|partial^alpham(xi)|leq C_0|xi|^, forall alpha in mathbbN_0^n text i.e. alpha is a multi-index with |alpha| leq n+2.$$ $$text Then, for all 1 < p < infty, exists B=B(m,n,p) > 0 text such that ||T_mf||_L^p leq B||f||_L^p, forall f in mathcalS(mathbbR^n).$$



In proving this one considers a partition of unity as follows $Psi in C_c^infty(mathbbR^n),$ with support of $Psi subseteq mathbbR^n backslash 0$ and $ sum_j=- infty^infty Psi(fracx2^j) =1 ,forall x neq 0$. This can be choosen radial and non-negative.



Then defining $Psi_j(x):= Psi(fracx2^j)$ for $Psi$ as above and observing that each $Psi_j$ is supported in a dyadic annulus of size $2^j$ and given $j in mathbbZ, m_j(xi):=Psi_j(xi)m(xi)$



How the The Fourier multiplier of the above $m_j(xi)$ is $m_j(D)$
How do we obtain $m(D)f = sum_jm_j(D)f$ with convergence in $L^2$ (I know we have to use Plancherel and the Dominated Convergence Theorem somehow)







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  • Who is the operator $T_m$?
    – Hugocito
    Jul 16 at 19:55






  • 1




    @Hugocito Given a function $m : mathbbR^n rightarrow mathbbC$ the operator $(T_mf)(x):= int_mathbbR^nm(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ where $f in mathcalS(mathbbR^n)$ For ease of notation we denote $T_m = m(D) $
    – VBACODER
    Jul 16 at 20:02










  • As your hints say: Use the Plancherel theorem to express both $m(D)f$ and the sum of the $m_i(D) f$ as functions in the frequency domain. By the identity $sum_j Psi(x 2^j) = 1$ you have pointwise convergence, Use the dominated convergence theorem to pass from a pointwise limit to a integral one.
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jul 17 at 11:02










  • @AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet.
    – VBACODER
    Jul 17 at 18:56










  • @AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet. So $m(D)f = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ $ m_j(D)f = int_mathbbR^nm_j(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n Psi_j(xi)m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ Therefore $m(D)f = sum_jm_j(D)f$ For the convergence I need to use the $L^p$ version of the dominated convergence theorem with $p=2.$
    – VBACODER
    Jul 17 at 19:02














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












The Mikhlin multiplier states the following:



Let $m : mathbbR^n backslash 0 rightarrow mathbbC$ satisfy the following:



$$|partial^alpham(xi)|leq C_0|xi|^, forall alpha in mathbbN_0^n text i.e. alpha is a multi-index with |alpha| leq n+2.$$ $$text Then, for all 1 < p < infty, exists B=B(m,n,p) > 0 text such that ||T_mf||_L^p leq B||f||_L^p, forall f in mathcalS(mathbbR^n).$$



In proving this one considers a partition of unity as follows $Psi in C_c^infty(mathbbR^n),$ with support of $Psi subseteq mathbbR^n backslash 0$ and $ sum_j=- infty^infty Psi(fracx2^j) =1 ,forall x neq 0$. This can be choosen radial and non-negative.



Then defining $Psi_j(x):= Psi(fracx2^j)$ for $Psi$ as above and observing that each $Psi_j$ is supported in a dyadic annulus of size $2^j$ and given $j in mathbbZ, m_j(xi):=Psi_j(xi)m(xi)$



How the The Fourier multiplier of the above $m_j(xi)$ is $m_j(D)$
How do we obtain $m(D)f = sum_jm_j(D)f$ with convergence in $L^2$ (I know we have to use Plancherel and the Dominated Convergence Theorem somehow)







share|cite|improve this question





















  • Who is the operator $T_m$?
    – Hugocito
    Jul 16 at 19:55






  • 1




    @Hugocito Given a function $m : mathbbR^n rightarrow mathbbC$ the operator $(T_mf)(x):= int_mathbbR^nm(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ where $f in mathcalS(mathbbR^n)$ For ease of notation we denote $T_m = m(D) $
    – VBACODER
    Jul 16 at 20:02










  • As your hints say: Use the Plancherel theorem to express both $m(D)f$ and the sum of the $m_i(D) f$ as functions in the frequency domain. By the identity $sum_j Psi(x 2^j) = 1$ you have pointwise convergence, Use the dominated convergence theorem to pass from a pointwise limit to a integral one.
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jul 17 at 11:02










  • @AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet.
    – VBACODER
    Jul 17 at 18:56










  • @AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet. So $m(D)f = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ $ m_j(D)f = int_mathbbR^nm_j(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n Psi_j(xi)m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ Therefore $m(D)f = sum_jm_j(D)f$ For the convergence I need to use the $L^p$ version of the dominated convergence theorem with $p=2.$
    – VBACODER
    Jul 17 at 19:02












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











The Mikhlin multiplier states the following:



Let $m : mathbbR^n backslash 0 rightarrow mathbbC$ satisfy the following:



$$|partial^alpham(xi)|leq C_0|xi|^, forall alpha in mathbbN_0^n text i.e. alpha is a multi-index with |alpha| leq n+2.$$ $$text Then, for all 1 < p < infty, exists B=B(m,n,p) > 0 text such that ||T_mf||_L^p leq B||f||_L^p, forall f in mathcalS(mathbbR^n).$$



In proving this one considers a partition of unity as follows $Psi in C_c^infty(mathbbR^n),$ with support of $Psi subseteq mathbbR^n backslash 0$ and $ sum_j=- infty^infty Psi(fracx2^j) =1 ,forall x neq 0$. This can be choosen radial and non-negative.



Then defining $Psi_j(x):= Psi(fracx2^j)$ for $Psi$ as above and observing that each $Psi_j$ is supported in a dyadic annulus of size $2^j$ and given $j in mathbbZ, m_j(xi):=Psi_j(xi)m(xi)$



How the The Fourier multiplier of the above $m_j(xi)$ is $m_j(D)$
How do we obtain $m(D)f = sum_jm_j(D)f$ with convergence in $L^2$ (I know we have to use Plancherel and the Dominated Convergence Theorem somehow)







share|cite|improve this question













The Mikhlin multiplier states the following:



Let $m : mathbbR^n backslash 0 rightarrow mathbbC$ satisfy the following:



$$|partial^alpham(xi)|leq C_0|xi|^, forall alpha in mathbbN_0^n text i.e. alpha is a multi-index with |alpha| leq n+2.$$ $$text Then, for all 1 < p < infty, exists B=B(m,n,p) > 0 text such that ||T_mf||_L^p leq B||f||_L^p, forall f in mathcalS(mathbbR^n).$$



In proving this one considers a partition of unity as follows $Psi in C_c^infty(mathbbR^n),$ with support of $Psi subseteq mathbbR^n backslash 0$ and $ sum_j=- infty^infty Psi(fracx2^j) =1 ,forall x neq 0$. This can be choosen radial and non-negative.



Then defining $Psi_j(x):= Psi(fracx2^j)$ for $Psi$ as above and observing that each $Psi_j$ is supported in a dyadic annulus of size $2^j$ and given $j in mathbbZ, m_j(xi):=Psi_j(xi)m(xi)$



How the The Fourier multiplier of the above $m_j(xi)$ is $m_j(D)$
How do we obtain $m(D)f = sum_jm_j(D)f$ with convergence in $L^2$ (I know we have to use Plancherel and the Dominated Convergence Theorem somehow)









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 16 at 20:03









Hugocito

1,6451019




1,6451019









asked Jul 16 at 19:49









VBACODER

748




748











  • Who is the operator $T_m$?
    – Hugocito
    Jul 16 at 19:55






  • 1




    @Hugocito Given a function $m : mathbbR^n rightarrow mathbbC$ the operator $(T_mf)(x):= int_mathbbR^nm(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ where $f in mathcalS(mathbbR^n)$ For ease of notation we denote $T_m = m(D) $
    – VBACODER
    Jul 16 at 20:02










  • As your hints say: Use the Plancherel theorem to express both $m(D)f$ and the sum of the $m_i(D) f$ as functions in the frequency domain. By the identity $sum_j Psi(x 2^j) = 1$ you have pointwise convergence, Use the dominated convergence theorem to pass from a pointwise limit to a integral one.
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jul 17 at 11:02










  • @AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet.
    – VBACODER
    Jul 17 at 18:56










  • @AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet. So $m(D)f = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ $ m_j(D)f = int_mathbbR^nm_j(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n Psi_j(xi)m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ Therefore $m(D)f = sum_jm_j(D)f$ For the convergence I need to use the $L^p$ version of the dominated convergence theorem with $p=2.$
    – VBACODER
    Jul 17 at 19:02
















  • Who is the operator $T_m$?
    – Hugocito
    Jul 16 at 19:55






  • 1




    @Hugocito Given a function $m : mathbbR^n rightarrow mathbbC$ the operator $(T_mf)(x):= int_mathbbR^nm(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ where $f in mathcalS(mathbbR^n)$ For ease of notation we denote $T_m = m(D) $
    – VBACODER
    Jul 16 at 20:02










  • As your hints say: Use the Plancherel theorem to express both $m(D)f$ and the sum of the $m_i(D) f$ as functions in the frequency domain. By the identity $sum_j Psi(x 2^j) = 1$ you have pointwise convergence, Use the dominated convergence theorem to pass from a pointwise limit to a integral one.
    – Adrián González-Pérez
    Jul 17 at 11:02










  • @AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet.
    – VBACODER
    Jul 17 at 18:56










  • @AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet. So $m(D)f = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ $ m_j(D)f = int_mathbbR^nm_j(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n Psi_j(xi)m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ Therefore $m(D)f = sum_jm_j(D)f$ For the convergence I need to use the $L^p$ version of the dominated convergence theorem with $p=2.$
    – VBACODER
    Jul 17 at 19:02















Who is the operator $T_m$?
– Hugocito
Jul 16 at 19:55




Who is the operator $T_m$?
– Hugocito
Jul 16 at 19:55




1




1




@Hugocito Given a function $m : mathbbR^n rightarrow mathbbC$ the operator $(T_mf)(x):= int_mathbbR^nm(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ where $f in mathcalS(mathbbR^n)$ For ease of notation we denote $T_m = m(D) $
– VBACODER
Jul 16 at 20:02




@Hugocito Given a function $m : mathbbR^n rightarrow mathbbC$ the operator $(T_mf)(x):= int_mathbbR^nm(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ where $f in mathcalS(mathbbR^n)$ For ease of notation we denote $T_m = m(D) $
– VBACODER
Jul 16 at 20:02












As your hints say: Use the Plancherel theorem to express both $m(D)f$ and the sum of the $m_i(D) f$ as functions in the frequency domain. By the identity $sum_j Psi(x 2^j) = 1$ you have pointwise convergence, Use the dominated convergence theorem to pass from a pointwise limit to a integral one.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Jul 17 at 11:02




As your hints say: Use the Plancherel theorem to express both $m(D)f$ and the sum of the $m_i(D) f$ as functions in the frequency domain. By the identity $sum_j Psi(x 2^j) = 1$ you have pointwise convergence, Use the dominated convergence theorem to pass from a pointwise limit to a integral one.
– Adrián González-Pérez
Jul 17 at 11:02












@AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet.
– VBACODER
Jul 17 at 18:56




@AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet.
– VBACODER
Jul 17 at 18:56












@AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet. So $m(D)f = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ $ m_j(D)f = int_mathbbR^nm_j(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n Psi_j(xi)m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ Therefore $m(D)f = sum_jm_j(D)f$ For the convergence I need to use the $L^p$ version of the dominated convergence theorem with $p=2.$
– VBACODER
Jul 17 at 19:02




@AdriánGonzález-Pérez I've had an attempt although I'm not very confident with these calculations yet. So $m(D)f = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ $ m_j(D)f = int_mathbbR^nm_j(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n Psi_j(xi)m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi = int_mathbbR^n m(xi)f^hat(xi)e^2 pi i x xid xi$ Therefore $m(D)f = sum_jm_j(D)f$ For the convergence I need to use the $L^p$ version of the dominated convergence theorem with $p=2.$
– VBACODER
Jul 17 at 19:02















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