Necessary and sufficient condition for $P(xigeq b)=1$

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I'm working on the following question and I don't see how the claim of the problem is even possible




Let $xi$ be a non-negative random variable. Prove that for $b>0$, $$lim_tto +inftyfrac1tlog mathbb Ee^-txi = -b$$ iff $P(xigeq b) = 1$.




Thing is, I don't see how this statement even makes sense, because there is only one possible value of that limit if it's defined, but there can potentially be many possible values of $b$ such that $P(xigeq b) = 1$



Source: Fall 2015







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  • 2




    You might simplify by calling the random variable $X$ and/or by putting the random variable somewhere in the expectation.
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:01










  • @Michael I changed the $x$ to $xi$ since it is clearly a typo. Also, according to the source, there was a missing $log$ in the expression, so I added that too.
    – Math1000
    Jul 24 at 4:03











  • Can you do any part of this? For example if you assume $X geq b$ then $e^-tX leq e^-tb$ (assuming $t>0$).
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:17










  • @Michael I think it is safe to assume $t>0$ since we are considering the limit as $tto+infty$ here :)
    – Math1000
    Jul 24 at 4:18






  • 1




    Looks like $X=1/2$ (with prob 1) is a counter-example in one direction. Try $b=1/2$ and $b=1/4$.
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:38















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I'm working on the following question and I don't see how the claim of the problem is even possible




Let $xi$ be a non-negative random variable. Prove that for $b>0$, $$lim_tto +inftyfrac1tlog mathbb Ee^-txi = -b$$ iff $P(xigeq b) = 1$.




Thing is, I don't see how this statement even makes sense, because there is only one possible value of that limit if it's defined, but there can potentially be many possible values of $b$ such that $P(xigeq b) = 1$



Source: Fall 2015







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 2




    You might simplify by calling the random variable $X$ and/or by putting the random variable somewhere in the expectation.
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:01










  • @Michael I changed the $x$ to $xi$ since it is clearly a typo. Also, according to the source, there was a missing $log$ in the expression, so I added that too.
    – Math1000
    Jul 24 at 4:03











  • Can you do any part of this? For example if you assume $X geq b$ then $e^-tX leq e^-tb$ (assuming $t>0$).
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:17










  • @Michael I think it is safe to assume $t>0$ since we are considering the limit as $tto+infty$ here :)
    – Math1000
    Jul 24 at 4:18






  • 1




    Looks like $X=1/2$ (with prob 1) is a counter-example in one direction. Try $b=1/2$ and $b=1/4$.
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:38













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I'm working on the following question and I don't see how the claim of the problem is even possible




Let $xi$ be a non-negative random variable. Prove that for $b>0$, $$lim_tto +inftyfrac1tlog mathbb Ee^-txi = -b$$ iff $P(xigeq b) = 1$.




Thing is, I don't see how this statement even makes sense, because there is only one possible value of that limit if it's defined, but there can potentially be many possible values of $b$ such that $P(xigeq b) = 1$



Source: Fall 2015







share|cite|improve this question













I'm working on the following question and I don't see how the claim of the problem is even possible




Let $xi$ be a non-negative random variable. Prove that for $b>0$, $$lim_tto +inftyfrac1tlog mathbb Ee^-txi = -b$$ iff $P(xigeq b) = 1$.




Thing is, I don't see how this statement even makes sense, because there is only one possible value of that limit if it's defined, but there can potentially be many possible values of $b$ such that $P(xigeq b) = 1$



Source: Fall 2015









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 24 at 4:13









Math1000

18.4k31444




18.4k31444









asked Jul 24 at 3:42









iYOA

60049




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  • 2




    You might simplify by calling the random variable $X$ and/or by putting the random variable somewhere in the expectation.
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:01










  • @Michael I changed the $x$ to $xi$ since it is clearly a typo. Also, according to the source, there was a missing $log$ in the expression, so I added that too.
    – Math1000
    Jul 24 at 4:03











  • Can you do any part of this? For example if you assume $X geq b$ then $e^-tX leq e^-tb$ (assuming $t>0$).
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:17










  • @Michael I think it is safe to assume $t>0$ since we are considering the limit as $tto+infty$ here :)
    – Math1000
    Jul 24 at 4:18






  • 1




    Looks like $X=1/2$ (with prob 1) is a counter-example in one direction. Try $b=1/2$ and $b=1/4$.
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:38













  • 2




    You might simplify by calling the random variable $X$ and/or by putting the random variable somewhere in the expectation.
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:01










  • @Michael I changed the $x$ to $xi$ since it is clearly a typo. Also, according to the source, there was a missing $log$ in the expression, so I added that too.
    – Math1000
    Jul 24 at 4:03











  • Can you do any part of this? For example if you assume $X geq b$ then $e^-tX leq e^-tb$ (assuming $t>0$).
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:17










  • @Michael I think it is safe to assume $t>0$ since we are considering the limit as $tto+infty$ here :)
    – Math1000
    Jul 24 at 4:18






  • 1




    Looks like $X=1/2$ (with prob 1) is a counter-example in one direction. Try $b=1/2$ and $b=1/4$.
    – Michael
    Jul 24 at 4:38








2




2




You might simplify by calling the random variable $X$ and/or by putting the random variable somewhere in the expectation.
– Michael
Jul 24 at 4:01




You might simplify by calling the random variable $X$ and/or by putting the random variable somewhere in the expectation.
– Michael
Jul 24 at 4:01












@Michael I changed the $x$ to $xi$ since it is clearly a typo. Also, according to the source, there was a missing $log$ in the expression, so I added that too.
– Math1000
Jul 24 at 4:03





@Michael I changed the $x$ to $xi$ since it is clearly a typo. Also, according to the source, there was a missing $log$ in the expression, so I added that too.
– Math1000
Jul 24 at 4:03













Can you do any part of this? For example if you assume $X geq b$ then $e^-tX leq e^-tb$ (assuming $t>0$).
– Michael
Jul 24 at 4:17




Can you do any part of this? For example if you assume $X geq b$ then $e^-tX leq e^-tb$ (assuming $t>0$).
– Michael
Jul 24 at 4:17












@Michael I think it is safe to assume $t>0$ since we are considering the limit as $tto+infty$ here :)
– Math1000
Jul 24 at 4:18




@Michael I think it is safe to assume $t>0$ since we are considering the limit as $tto+infty$ here :)
– Math1000
Jul 24 at 4:18




1




1




Looks like $X=1/2$ (with prob 1) is a counter-example in one direction. Try $b=1/2$ and $b=1/4$.
– Michael
Jul 24 at 4:38





Looks like $X=1/2$ (with prob 1) is a counter-example in one direction. Try $b=1/2$ and $b=1/4$.
– Michael
Jul 24 at 4:38











1 Answer
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Here is a fix: Let $X$ be any random variable such that $E[e^-tX]$ is finite for all $t >0$. Prove:



1) If $b in mathbbR$ and $P[X<b]=0$ then
$$ limsup_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) leq -b $$



2) If $b in mathbbR$ and $P[X<b]>0$ then
$$ liminf_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) > -b $$



3) Conclude that $lim_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX])$ exists (possibly being $infty$) and is equal to $-b^*$, where
$$ b^* = inf b in mathbbR : P[X<b]>0 $$



4) Conclude that $lim_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) leq -b$ if and only if $P[Xgeq b] =1$.






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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    Here is a fix: Let $X$ be any random variable such that $E[e^-tX]$ is finite for all $t >0$. Prove:



    1) If $b in mathbbR$ and $P[X<b]=0$ then
    $$ limsup_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) leq -b $$



    2) If $b in mathbbR$ and $P[X<b]>0$ then
    $$ liminf_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) > -b $$



    3) Conclude that $lim_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX])$ exists (possibly being $infty$) and is equal to $-b^*$, where
    $$ b^* = inf b in mathbbR : P[X<b]>0 $$



    4) Conclude that $lim_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) leq -b$ if and only if $P[Xgeq b] =1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      Here is a fix: Let $X$ be any random variable such that $E[e^-tX]$ is finite for all $t >0$. Prove:



      1) If $b in mathbbR$ and $P[X<b]=0$ then
      $$ limsup_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) leq -b $$



      2) If $b in mathbbR$ and $P[X<b]>0$ then
      $$ liminf_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) > -b $$



      3) Conclude that $lim_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX])$ exists (possibly being $infty$) and is equal to $-b^*$, where
      $$ b^* = inf b in mathbbR : P[X<b]>0 $$



      4) Conclude that $lim_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) leq -b$ if and only if $P[Xgeq b] =1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted






        Here is a fix: Let $X$ be any random variable such that $E[e^-tX]$ is finite for all $t >0$. Prove:



        1) If $b in mathbbR$ and $P[X<b]=0$ then
        $$ limsup_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) leq -b $$



        2) If $b in mathbbR$ and $P[X<b]>0$ then
        $$ liminf_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) > -b $$



        3) Conclude that $lim_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX])$ exists (possibly being $infty$) and is equal to $-b^*$, where
        $$ b^* = inf b in mathbbR : P[X<b]>0 $$



        4) Conclude that $lim_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) leq -b$ if and only if $P[Xgeq b] =1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer















        Here is a fix: Let $X$ be any random variable such that $E[e^-tX]$ is finite for all $t >0$. Prove:



        1) If $b in mathbbR$ and $P[X<b]=0$ then
        $$ limsup_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) leq -b $$



        2) If $b in mathbbR$ and $P[X<b]>0$ then
        $$ liminf_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) > -b $$



        3) Conclude that $lim_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX])$ exists (possibly being $infty$) and is equal to $-b^*$, where
        $$ b^* = inf b in mathbbR : P[X<b]>0 $$



        4) Conclude that $lim_trightarrowinfty frac1tlog(E[e^-tX]) leq -b$ if and only if $P[Xgeq b] =1$.







        share|cite|improve this answer















        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jul 24 at 15:26


























        answered Jul 24 at 15:11









        Michael

        12.1k11325




        12.1k11325






















             

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