Nested uniform convergence

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Suppose $f^m,n$ converges to $f^n$ uniformly as $mtoinfty$ and $f^n$ converges to $f$ uniformly as $ntoinfty$. Is it true that $f^m_n,n$ converges to $f$ uniformly as $ntoinfty$ where $m_n$ is strictly increasing in $n$?







share|cite|improve this question















  • 1




    Is $m_n$ a given sequence or is something we can choose?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 30 at 10:23










  • Maybe try to estimate $|f^m_n,n - f| leqslant |f^m_n, n - f^n| + |f^n - f|$.
    – xbh
    Jul 30 at 10:24














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Suppose $f^m,n$ converges to $f^n$ uniformly as $mtoinfty$ and $f^n$ converges to $f$ uniformly as $ntoinfty$. Is it true that $f^m_n,n$ converges to $f$ uniformly as $ntoinfty$ where $m_n$ is strictly increasing in $n$?







share|cite|improve this question















  • 1




    Is $m_n$ a given sequence or is something we can choose?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 30 at 10:23










  • Maybe try to estimate $|f^m_n,n - f| leqslant |f^m_n, n - f^n| + |f^n - f|$.
    – xbh
    Jul 30 at 10:24












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Suppose $f^m,n$ converges to $f^n$ uniformly as $mtoinfty$ and $f^n$ converges to $f$ uniformly as $ntoinfty$. Is it true that $f^m_n,n$ converges to $f$ uniformly as $ntoinfty$ where $m_n$ is strictly increasing in $n$?







share|cite|improve this question











Suppose $f^m,n$ converges to $f^n$ uniformly as $mtoinfty$ and $f^n$ converges to $f$ uniformly as $ntoinfty$. Is it true that $f^m_n,n$ converges to $f$ uniformly as $ntoinfty$ where $m_n$ is strictly increasing in $n$?









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 30 at 10:19









jerom

647




647







  • 1




    Is $m_n$ a given sequence or is something we can choose?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 30 at 10:23










  • Maybe try to estimate $|f^m_n,n - f| leqslant |f^m_n, n - f^n| + |f^n - f|$.
    – xbh
    Jul 30 at 10:24












  • 1




    Is $m_n$ a given sequence or is something we can choose?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 30 at 10:23










  • Maybe try to estimate $|f^m_n,n - f| leqslant |f^m_n, n - f^n| + |f^n - f|$.
    – xbh
    Jul 30 at 10:24







1




1




Is $m_n$ a given sequence or is something we can choose?
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jul 30 at 10:23




Is $m_n$ a given sequence or is something we can choose?
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jul 30 at 10:23












Maybe try to estimate $|f^m_n,n - f| leqslant |f^m_n, n - f^n| + |f^n - f|$.
– xbh
Jul 30 at 10:24




Maybe try to estimate $|f^m_n,n - f| leqslant |f^m_n, n - f^n| + |f^n - f|$.
– xbh
Jul 30 at 10:24










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Yes, for some sequence $m_n%$ strictly increasing to $infty$; false if $m_n$ is given in advance. In either case the arguments boil down to the numbers $||f^m_n,n-f||$ etc so the question does not have much to do with functions and uniform limits. Some details: for each $n$ choose $m_n$ such that $||f^m,n-f^n||<frac 1 n$ for $m geq m_n$. Then $||f^m_n,n-f||to 0$. [ Norm is the sup norm]. For a counterexampe to show that this does not hold for any $m_n$ take $f^m,nequiv frac m m+n$,$m_n=n$.






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    No. Take$$beginarrayrcccf^m,ncolon&[0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&t&mapsto&begincasest^n&text if tleqslant 1-frac1m\left(1-frac1mright)^n&text otherwise.endcasesendarray$$Then $(f^m,n)_minmathbb N$ converges uniformly $f_n(t)=t^n$. However. $(f^n,n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















      Your Answer




      StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
      return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
      StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
      StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
      );
      );
      , "mathjax-editing");

      StackExchange.ready(function()
      var channelOptions =
      tags: "".split(" "),
      id: "69"
      ;
      initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

      StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
      // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
      if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
      StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
      createEditor();
      );

      else
      createEditor();

      );

      function createEditor()
      StackExchange.prepareEditor(
      heartbeatType: 'answer',
      convertImagesToLinks: true,
      noModals: false,
      showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
      reputationToPostImages: 10,
      bindNavPrevention: true,
      postfix: "",
      noCode: true, onDemand: true,
      discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
      ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
      );



      );








       

      draft saved


      draft discarded


















      StackExchange.ready(
      function ()
      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2866865%2fnested-uniform-convergence%23new-answer', 'question_page');

      );

      Post as a guest






























      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      Yes, for some sequence $m_n%$ strictly increasing to $infty$; false if $m_n$ is given in advance. In either case the arguments boil down to the numbers $||f^m_n,n-f||$ etc so the question does not have much to do with functions and uniform limits. Some details: for each $n$ choose $m_n$ such that $||f^m,n-f^n||<frac 1 n$ for $m geq m_n$. Then $||f^m_n,n-f||to 0$. [ Norm is the sup norm]. For a counterexampe to show that this does not hold for any $m_n$ take $f^m,nequiv frac m m+n$,$m_n=n$.






      share|cite|improve this answer



























        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted










        Yes, for some sequence $m_n%$ strictly increasing to $infty$; false if $m_n$ is given in advance. In either case the arguments boil down to the numbers $||f^m_n,n-f||$ etc so the question does not have much to do with functions and uniform limits. Some details: for each $n$ choose $m_n$ such that $||f^m,n-f^n||<frac 1 n$ for $m geq m_n$. Then $||f^m_n,n-f||to 0$. [ Norm is the sup norm]. For a counterexampe to show that this does not hold for any $m_n$ take $f^m,nequiv frac m m+n$,$m_n=n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Yes, for some sequence $m_n%$ strictly increasing to $infty$; false if $m_n$ is given in advance. In either case the arguments boil down to the numbers $||f^m_n,n-f||$ etc so the question does not have much to do with functions and uniform limits. Some details: for each $n$ choose $m_n$ such that $||f^m,n-f^n||<frac 1 n$ for $m geq m_n$. Then $||f^m_n,n-f||to 0$. [ Norm is the sup norm]. For a counterexampe to show that this does not hold for any $m_n$ take $f^m,nequiv frac m m+n$,$m_n=n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          Yes, for some sequence $m_n%$ strictly increasing to $infty$; false if $m_n$ is given in advance. In either case the arguments boil down to the numbers $||f^m_n,n-f||$ etc so the question does not have much to do with functions and uniform limits. Some details: for each $n$ choose $m_n$ such that $||f^m,n-f^n||<frac 1 n$ for $m geq m_n$. Then $||f^m_n,n-f||to 0$. [ Norm is the sup norm]. For a counterexampe to show that this does not hold for any $m_n$ take $f^m,nequiv frac m m+n$,$m_n=n$.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 30 at 10:34


























          answered Jul 30 at 10:26









          Kavi Rama Murthy

          19.7k2829




          19.7k2829




















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              No. Take$$beginarrayrcccf^m,ncolon&[0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&t&mapsto&begincasest^n&text if tleqslant 1-frac1m\left(1-frac1mright)^n&text otherwise.endcasesendarray$$Then $(f^m,n)_minmathbb N$ converges uniformly $f_n(t)=t^n$. However. $(f^n,n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                No. Take$$beginarrayrcccf^m,ncolon&[0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&t&mapsto&begincasest^n&text if tleqslant 1-frac1m\left(1-frac1mright)^n&text otherwise.endcasesendarray$$Then $(f^m,n)_minmathbb N$ converges uniformly $f_n(t)=t^n$. However. $(f^n,n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  No. Take$$beginarrayrcccf^m,ncolon&[0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&t&mapsto&begincasest^n&text if tleqslant 1-frac1m\left(1-frac1mright)^n&text otherwise.endcasesendarray$$Then $(f^m,n)_minmathbb N$ converges uniformly $f_n(t)=t^n$. However. $(f^n,n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  No. Take$$beginarrayrcccf^m,ncolon&[0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&t&mapsto&begincasest^n&text if tleqslant 1-frac1m\left(1-frac1mright)^n&text otherwise.endcasesendarray$$Then $(f^m,n)_minmathbb N$ converges uniformly $f_n(t)=t^n$. However. $(f^n,n)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge uniformly.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Jul 30 at 10:29









                  José Carlos Santos

                  112k1696172




                  112k1696172






















                       

                      draft saved


                      draft discarded


























                       


                      draft saved


                      draft discarded














                      StackExchange.ready(
                      function ()
                      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2866865%2fnested-uniform-convergence%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                      );

                      Post as a guest













































































                      Comments

                      Popular posts from this blog

                      What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

                      Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

                      Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?