Product of a skew hermitian and real matrix [closed]

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Let A and B be two 2×2 matrix with A being skew-hermitian and AB=B .show that B=0



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closed as off-topic by Xander Henderson, Leucippus, Jyrki Lahtonen, Taroccoesbrocco, Shailesh Jul 31 at 9:28


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  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Xander Henderson, Leucippus, Jyrki Lahtonen, Taroccoesbrocco, Shailesh
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  • Your title says that $B$ is real, but your question body doesn't. Is $B$ assumed to be real?
    – Arthur
    Jul 30 at 17:34










  • Yes. B IS REAL matrix
    – Shrimon Mukherjee
    Jul 30 at 17:39














up vote
-1
down vote

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Let A and B be two 2×2 matrix with A being skew-hermitian and AB=B .show that B=0



please help need hint







share|cite|improve this question











closed as off-topic by Xander Henderson, Leucippus, Jyrki Lahtonen, Taroccoesbrocco, Shailesh Jul 31 at 9:28


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Xander Henderson, Leucippus, Jyrki Lahtonen, Taroccoesbrocco, Shailesh
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • Your title says that $B$ is real, but your question body doesn't. Is $B$ assumed to be real?
    – Arthur
    Jul 30 at 17:34










  • Yes. B IS REAL matrix
    – Shrimon Mukherjee
    Jul 30 at 17:39












up vote
-1
down vote

favorite









up vote
-1
down vote

favorite











Let A and B be two 2×2 matrix with A being skew-hermitian and AB=B .show that B=0



please help need hint







share|cite|improve this question











Let A and B be two 2×2 matrix with A being skew-hermitian and AB=B .show that B=0



please help need hint









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 30 at 17:30









Shrimon Mukherjee

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155




closed as off-topic by Xander Henderson, Leucippus, Jyrki Lahtonen, Taroccoesbrocco, Shailesh Jul 31 at 9:28


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Xander Henderson, Leucippus, Jyrki Lahtonen, Taroccoesbrocco, Shailesh
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Xander Henderson, Leucippus, Jyrki Lahtonen, Taroccoesbrocco, Shailesh Jul 31 at 9:28


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Xander Henderson, Leucippus, Jyrki Lahtonen, Taroccoesbrocco, Shailesh
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.











  • Your title says that $B$ is real, but your question body doesn't. Is $B$ assumed to be real?
    – Arthur
    Jul 30 at 17:34










  • Yes. B IS REAL matrix
    – Shrimon Mukherjee
    Jul 30 at 17:39
















  • Your title says that $B$ is real, but your question body doesn't. Is $B$ assumed to be real?
    – Arthur
    Jul 30 at 17:34










  • Yes. B IS REAL matrix
    – Shrimon Mukherjee
    Jul 30 at 17:39















Your title says that $B$ is real, but your question body doesn't. Is $B$ assumed to be real?
– Arthur
Jul 30 at 17:34




Your title says that $B$ is real, but your question body doesn't. Is $B$ assumed to be real?
– Arthur
Jul 30 at 17:34












Yes. B IS REAL matrix
– Shrimon Mukherjee
Jul 30 at 17:39




Yes. B IS REAL matrix
– Shrimon Mukherjee
Jul 30 at 17:39










2 Answers
2






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Try rewriting the equation as $(A-I)B = 0.$ What piece of information about $A-I$ would let you conclude that $B=0$? Since $A-I$ is just a $2times 2$ matrix, you can check directly that this condition on $A-I$ holds.






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    We are given that $A^dagger=-A$ and that $B$ is real. The first condition implies that $a_ij=-overlinea_ji.$ On the main diagonal of $A,$ we must have that $a_ii=-overlinea_ii,$ or, if $a_ii=a+bi,$ then $a+bi=-(a-bi),$ or $a+bi=-a+bi,$ and hence $a=0.$ That is, the main diagonals must have purely imaginary entries. Now suppose $a_12=c+di.$ Then $a_21=-overlinea_12=-(c-di)=-c+di.$ Hence, we may characterize $A$ as follows:
    $$ A=left[beginmatrixai &c+di\ -c+di &biendmatrixright].$$
    Now, for $B$ real, we simply write
    $$B=left[beginmatrixe &f\ g &h endmatrixright]. $$
    Here, $a, b, c, d, e, f, g, hinmathbbR.$ Multiplying out yields
    $$AB=left[beginmatrixcg+(ae+dg)i&ch+(af+dh)i\ -ce+(de+bg)i &-cf+(df+bh)iendmatrixright]=left[beginmatrixe &f\ g &h endmatrixright]. $$
    From this, we may conclude that
    beginalign*
    cg&=e \
    ch&=f \
    -ce&=g \
    -cf&=h.
    endalign*
    I'm just equating the real parts of all four entries.
    A couple of substitutions yields
    beginalign*
    -c^2g&=g implies 0=g(1+c^2)\
    -c^2h&=h implies 0=h(1+c^2).
    endalign*
    This can only happen if $g=h=0,$ from which it follows that $e=f=0,$ and you're done.






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      2 Answers
      2






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

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      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Try rewriting the equation as $(A-I)B = 0.$ What piece of information about $A-I$ would let you conclude that $B=0$? Since $A-I$ is just a $2times 2$ matrix, you can check directly that this condition on $A-I$ holds.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        Try rewriting the equation as $(A-I)B = 0.$ What piece of information about $A-I$ would let you conclude that $B=0$? Since $A-I$ is just a $2times 2$ matrix, you can check directly that this condition on $A-I$ holds.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          Try rewriting the equation as $(A-I)B = 0.$ What piece of information about $A-I$ would let you conclude that $B=0$? Since $A-I$ is just a $2times 2$ matrix, you can check directly that this condition on $A-I$ holds.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Try rewriting the equation as $(A-I)B = 0.$ What piece of information about $A-I$ would let you conclude that $B=0$? Since $A-I$ is just a $2times 2$ matrix, you can check directly that this condition on $A-I$ holds.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 30 at 18:27









          William Swartworth

          398210




          398210




















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              We are given that $A^dagger=-A$ and that $B$ is real. The first condition implies that $a_ij=-overlinea_ji.$ On the main diagonal of $A,$ we must have that $a_ii=-overlinea_ii,$ or, if $a_ii=a+bi,$ then $a+bi=-(a-bi),$ or $a+bi=-a+bi,$ and hence $a=0.$ That is, the main diagonals must have purely imaginary entries. Now suppose $a_12=c+di.$ Then $a_21=-overlinea_12=-(c-di)=-c+di.$ Hence, we may characterize $A$ as follows:
              $$ A=left[beginmatrixai &c+di\ -c+di &biendmatrixright].$$
              Now, for $B$ real, we simply write
              $$B=left[beginmatrixe &f\ g &h endmatrixright]. $$
              Here, $a, b, c, d, e, f, g, hinmathbbR.$ Multiplying out yields
              $$AB=left[beginmatrixcg+(ae+dg)i&ch+(af+dh)i\ -ce+(de+bg)i &-cf+(df+bh)iendmatrixright]=left[beginmatrixe &f\ g &h endmatrixright]. $$
              From this, we may conclude that
              beginalign*
              cg&=e \
              ch&=f \
              -ce&=g \
              -cf&=h.
              endalign*
              I'm just equating the real parts of all four entries.
              A couple of substitutions yields
              beginalign*
              -c^2g&=g implies 0=g(1+c^2)\
              -c^2h&=h implies 0=h(1+c^2).
              endalign*
              This can only happen if $g=h=0,$ from which it follows that $e=f=0,$ and you're done.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                We are given that $A^dagger=-A$ and that $B$ is real. The first condition implies that $a_ij=-overlinea_ji.$ On the main diagonal of $A,$ we must have that $a_ii=-overlinea_ii,$ or, if $a_ii=a+bi,$ then $a+bi=-(a-bi),$ or $a+bi=-a+bi,$ and hence $a=0.$ That is, the main diagonals must have purely imaginary entries. Now suppose $a_12=c+di.$ Then $a_21=-overlinea_12=-(c-di)=-c+di.$ Hence, we may characterize $A$ as follows:
                $$ A=left[beginmatrixai &c+di\ -c+di &biendmatrixright].$$
                Now, for $B$ real, we simply write
                $$B=left[beginmatrixe &f\ g &h endmatrixright]. $$
                Here, $a, b, c, d, e, f, g, hinmathbbR.$ Multiplying out yields
                $$AB=left[beginmatrixcg+(ae+dg)i&ch+(af+dh)i\ -ce+(de+bg)i &-cf+(df+bh)iendmatrixright]=left[beginmatrixe &f\ g &h endmatrixright]. $$
                From this, we may conclude that
                beginalign*
                cg&=e \
                ch&=f \
                -ce&=g \
                -cf&=h.
                endalign*
                I'm just equating the real parts of all four entries.
                A couple of substitutions yields
                beginalign*
                -c^2g&=g implies 0=g(1+c^2)\
                -c^2h&=h implies 0=h(1+c^2).
                endalign*
                This can only happen if $g=h=0,$ from which it follows that $e=f=0,$ and you're done.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  We are given that $A^dagger=-A$ and that $B$ is real. The first condition implies that $a_ij=-overlinea_ji.$ On the main diagonal of $A,$ we must have that $a_ii=-overlinea_ii,$ or, if $a_ii=a+bi,$ then $a+bi=-(a-bi),$ or $a+bi=-a+bi,$ and hence $a=0.$ That is, the main diagonals must have purely imaginary entries. Now suppose $a_12=c+di.$ Then $a_21=-overlinea_12=-(c-di)=-c+di.$ Hence, we may characterize $A$ as follows:
                  $$ A=left[beginmatrixai &c+di\ -c+di &biendmatrixright].$$
                  Now, for $B$ real, we simply write
                  $$B=left[beginmatrixe &f\ g &h endmatrixright]. $$
                  Here, $a, b, c, d, e, f, g, hinmathbbR.$ Multiplying out yields
                  $$AB=left[beginmatrixcg+(ae+dg)i&ch+(af+dh)i\ -ce+(de+bg)i &-cf+(df+bh)iendmatrixright]=left[beginmatrixe &f\ g &h endmatrixright]. $$
                  From this, we may conclude that
                  beginalign*
                  cg&=e \
                  ch&=f \
                  -ce&=g \
                  -cf&=h.
                  endalign*
                  I'm just equating the real parts of all four entries.
                  A couple of substitutions yields
                  beginalign*
                  -c^2g&=g implies 0=g(1+c^2)\
                  -c^2h&=h implies 0=h(1+c^2).
                  endalign*
                  This can only happen if $g=h=0,$ from which it follows that $e=f=0,$ and you're done.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  We are given that $A^dagger=-A$ and that $B$ is real. The first condition implies that $a_ij=-overlinea_ji.$ On the main diagonal of $A,$ we must have that $a_ii=-overlinea_ii,$ or, if $a_ii=a+bi,$ then $a+bi=-(a-bi),$ or $a+bi=-a+bi,$ and hence $a=0.$ That is, the main diagonals must have purely imaginary entries. Now suppose $a_12=c+di.$ Then $a_21=-overlinea_12=-(c-di)=-c+di.$ Hence, we may characterize $A$ as follows:
                  $$ A=left[beginmatrixai &c+di\ -c+di &biendmatrixright].$$
                  Now, for $B$ real, we simply write
                  $$B=left[beginmatrixe &f\ g &h endmatrixright]. $$
                  Here, $a, b, c, d, e, f, g, hinmathbbR.$ Multiplying out yields
                  $$AB=left[beginmatrixcg+(ae+dg)i&ch+(af+dh)i\ -ce+(de+bg)i &-cf+(df+bh)iendmatrixright]=left[beginmatrixe &f\ g &h endmatrixright]. $$
                  From this, we may conclude that
                  beginalign*
                  cg&=e \
                  ch&=f \
                  -ce&=g \
                  -cf&=h.
                  endalign*
                  I'm just equating the real parts of all four entries.
                  A couple of substitutions yields
                  beginalign*
                  -c^2g&=g implies 0=g(1+c^2)\
                  -c^2h&=h implies 0=h(1+c^2).
                  endalign*
                  This can only happen if $g=h=0,$ from which it follows that $e=f=0,$ and you're done.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Jul 30 at 18:37









                  Adrian Keister

                  3,51821533




                  3,51821533












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