Prove $2+2cos(2pitheta) leq 4exp(-2|theta |^2)$.

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I'm struggling to prove the following easy looking inequality from page 7 of Maynard's Primes with Restricted Digits .



Let $theta in mathbbR$, and let $|theta|$ denote the distance to the integer nearest to $theta$. I want to prove $$2+2cos(2pitheta) leq 4exp(-2|theta |^2).$$ From the double angle formula we arrive at the equivalent $$|cos(pi theta) | leq e^theta,$$ and since both sides are 1-periodic, we need only check that $$0 leq e^-theta^2 - cos(pi theta) qquad textfor $theta in left[0,frac12right]$,$$ and $$0 leq e^-(1-theta)^2 + cos(pi theta) qquad textfor $theta in left[frac12,1right]$.$$ It seems like these aren't as easy as "take the derivative a few times." Any suggestions?







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  • My instinct says try using complex number...
    – Karn Watcharasupat
    Jul 19 at 3:11










  • @stevengregory Yupp, the second one is false.
    – amsmath
    Jul 19 at 3:40










  • @amsmath Yes, the second one is incorrectly written. It should be "$0leq e^-(1-theta)^2+cos(pitheta)$" which is true
    – Spot
    Jul 19 at 4:25











  • @amsmath - No. I used the wrong formula for $|theta|$. So my comment is meaningless. To avoid confusion, I am going to delete my previous comment.
    – steven gregory
    Jul 19 at 8:30










  • @Spot Woops! Corrected now.
    – Dzoooks
    Jul 19 at 16:21














up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1












I'm struggling to prove the following easy looking inequality from page 7 of Maynard's Primes with Restricted Digits .



Let $theta in mathbbR$, and let $|theta|$ denote the distance to the integer nearest to $theta$. I want to prove $$2+2cos(2pitheta) leq 4exp(-2|theta |^2).$$ From the double angle formula we arrive at the equivalent $$|cos(pi theta) | leq e^theta,$$ and since both sides are 1-periodic, we need only check that $$0 leq e^-theta^2 - cos(pi theta) qquad textfor $theta in left[0,frac12right]$,$$ and $$0 leq e^-(1-theta)^2 + cos(pi theta) qquad textfor $theta in left[frac12,1right]$.$$ It seems like these aren't as easy as "take the derivative a few times." Any suggestions?







share|cite|improve this question





















  • My instinct says try using complex number...
    – Karn Watcharasupat
    Jul 19 at 3:11










  • @stevengregory Yupp, the second one is false.
    – amsmath
    Jul 19 at 3:40










  • @amsmath Yes, the second one is incorrectly written. It should be "$0leq e^-(1-theta)^2+cos(pitheta)$" which is true
    – Spot
    Jul 19 at 4:25











  • @amsmath - No. I used the wrong formula for $|theta|$. So my comment is meaningless. To avoid confusion, I am going to delete my previous comment.
    – steven gregory
    Jul 19 at 8:30










  • @Spot Woops! Corrected now.
    – Dzoooks
    Jul 19 at 16:21












up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1





I'm struggling to prove the following easy looking inequality from page 7 of Maynard's Primes with Restricted Digits .



Let $theta in mathbbR$, and let $|theta|$ denote the distance to the integer nearest to $theta$. I want to prove $$2+2cos(2pitheta) leq 4exp(-2|theta |^2).$$ From the double angle formula we arrive at the equivalent $$|cos(pi theta) | leq e^theta,$$ and since both sides are 1-periodic, we need only check that $$0 leq e^-theta^2 - cos(pi theta) qquad textfor $theta in left[0,frac12right]$,$$ and $$0 leq e^-(1-theta)^2 + cos(pi theta) qquad textfor $theta in left[frac12,1right]$.$$ It seems like these aren't as easy as "take the derivative a few times." Any suggestions?







share|cite|improve this question













I'm struggling to prove the following easy looking inequality from page 7 of Maynard's Primes with Restricted Digits .



Let $theta in mathbbR$, and let $|theta|$ denote the distance to the integer nearest to $theta$. I want to prove $$2+2cos(2pitheta) leq 4exp(-2|theta |^2).$$ From the double angle formula we arrive at the equivalent $$|cos(pi theta) | leq e^theta,$$ and since both sides are 1-periodic, we need only check that $$0 leq e^-theta^2 - cos(pi theta) qquad textfor $theta in left[0,frac12right]$,$$ and $$0 leq e^-(1-theta)^2 + cos(pi theta) qquad textfor $theta in left[frac12,1right]$.$$ It seems like these aren't as easy as "take the derivative a few times." Any suggestions?









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share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 19 at 16:21
























asked Jul 19 at 3:07









Dzoooks

740214




740214











  • My instinct says try using complex number...
    – Karn Watcharasupat
    Jul 19 at 3:11










  • @stevengregory Yupp, the second one is false.
    – amsmath
    Jul 19 at 3:40










  • @amsmath Yes, the second one is incorrectly written. It should be "$0leq e^-(1-theta)^2+cos(pitheta)$" which is true
    – Spot
    Jul 19 at 4:25











  • @amsmath - No. I used the wrong formula for $|theta|$. So my comment is meaningless. To avoid confusion, I am going to delete my previous comment.
    – steven gregory
    Jul 19 at 8:30










  • @Spot Woops! Corrected now.
    – Dzoooks
    Jul 19 at 16:21
















  • My instinct says try using complex number...
    – Karn Watcharasupat
    Jul 19 at 3:11










  • @stevengregory Yupp, the second one is false.
    – amsmath
    Jul 19 at 3:40










  • @amsmath Yes, the second one is incorrectly written. It should be "$0leq e^-(1-theta)^2+cos(pitheta)$" which is true
    – Spot
    Jul 19 at 4:25











  • @amsmath - No. I used the wrong formula for $|theta|$. So my comment is meaningless. To avoid confusion, I am going to delete my previous comment.
    – steven gregory
    Jul 19 at 8:30










  • @Spot Woops! Corrected now.
    – Dzoooks
    Jul 19 at 16:21















My instinct says try using complex number...
– Karn Watcharasupat
Jul 19 at 3:11




My instinct says try using complex number...
– Karn Watcharasupat
Jul 19 at 3:11












@stevengregory Yupp, the second one is false.
– amsmath
Jul 19 at 3:40




@stevengregory Yupp, the second one is false.
– amsmath
Jul 19 at 3:40












@amsmath Yes, the second one is incorrectly written. It should be "$0leq e^-(1-theta)^2+cos(pitheta)$" which is true
– Spot
Jul 19 at 4:25





@amsmath Yes, the second one is incorrectly written. It should be "$0leq e^-(1-theta)^2+cos(pitheta)$" which is true
– Spot
Jul 19 at 4:25













@amsmath - No. I used the wrong formula for $|theta|$. So my comment is meaningless. To avoid confusion, I am going to delete my previous comment.
– steven gregory
Jul 19 at 8:30




@amsmath - No. I used the wrong formula for $|theta|$. So my comment is meaningless. To avoid confusion, I am going to delete my previous comment.
– steven gregory
Jul 19 at 8:30












@Spot Woops! Corrected now.
– Dzoooks
Jul 19 at 16:21




@Spot Woops! Corrected now.
– Dzoooks
Jul 19 at 16:21










3 Answers
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active

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up vote
2
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accepted










In fact, because both sides of $|cospitheta|le e^-VertthetaVert^2$ are symmetric around $frac12$ ($f(theta)=f(1-theta)$), we only need to check $0le e^-theta^2-cospitheta$ for $thetain[0,1/2]$. This can be rewritten as
$$e^-theta^2gecospithetatag1$$
The idea of the proof of $(1)$ is to find two polynomials $p(x),q(x)$ with $cospi xle q(x)le p(x)le e^-x^2$ with $xin[0,1/2]$ and then prove $q(x)le p(x)$ over the same range of $x$. These polynomials are truncations of the Maclaurin series of the two sides of $(1)$, to $x^2$ for the LHS and to $x^4$ for the RHS, so we have
$$e^-x^2ge 1-fracx^22ge1-frac(pi x)^22+frac(pi x)^424gecospi x$$
$$-fracx^22ge-frac(pi x)^22+frac(pi x)^424$$
$$-frac12ge-fracpi^22+fracpi^4x^224$$
$$fracpi^2-12cdotfrac24pi^4ge x^2$$
$$xlesqrtfracpi^2-12cdotfrac24pi^4=1.045dots$$
Since this contains $[0,1/2]$, $q(x)le p(x)$ over the range in question and $(1)$ is proved.






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Let's prove the first inequality, namely
    $$
    tag1 cos (pi theta) leq e^-theta^2 text for theta in [0,1/2].
    $$



    First, we get rid of the exponential by observing that for any $xgeq 0$ we have $e^-x geq 1-x$, hence it is enough to show
    $$
    tag2 cos (pi theta) leq 1-theta^2 text for theta in [0,1/2].
    $$



    Consider the function $f(theta) = 1-theta^2 - cos(pi theta)$. We will simply analyse it through differentiation.



    We have
    $$f'(x) = -2theta +pi sin(pi theta),$$
    and
    $$
    f''(theta) = - 2 + pi^2 cos(pi theta).
    $$
    Set $theta_0 = frac1pi arccos frac2pi^2$ and notice that $f''(theta) > 0$ for all $theta in [0, theta_0)$ and $f''(theta) <0 $ when $theta> theta_0$. This shows that $f$ is convex in $[0,theta_0)$ and is concave in $(theta_0, 1/2]$.
    Since $f'(0)= 0$ and $f''>0$ in $[0,theta_0)$ we see that $f'$ must be positive in $(0,theta_0)$ and hence $f$ is increasing in $[0,theta_0)$; in particular
    $f(theta) geq 0$ in $[0,theta_0)$ and $f(theta_0) >0$.



    Finally, $f$ is concave in $(theta_0, 1/2]$ and is positive at the both endpoints of this interval, hence it cannot become $0$ in $(theta_0, 1/2]$, since concavity forces $f$ to stay above the straight line joining the points of its graph at $theta_0$ and $1/2$.



    I haven't tried the second inequality, but should be something similar.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      2
      down vote













      To look at Parly Taxels answer from a different direction.



      Prove that
      $$|cos(pi theta) | leq e^theta
      quad textwhere theta in [0, 0.5]tag1.$$



      and where $|theta| = left|theta - lfloortheta + 0.5 rfloor right|$ is the distance to the integer nearest to $theta$.



      It's easy to check this for $theta = 0$ and for $theta = 0.5$. So we can ignore those numbers from here on. We can now rewrite eqn$(1)$ as



      $$cos(pi theta) leq e^-theta^2
      quad textwhere theta in (0, 0.5)tag2.$$



      Since $ln$ is strictly increasing on $(0, infty)$, eqn$(2.)$ is equivalent to



      $$ln(cos(pi theta)) leq -theta^2
      quad textwhere theta in (0, 0.5)tag3.$$



      Let $f(theta) = -ln(cos(pi theta)) - theta^2$.



      Taking the derivative of both sides wrt $theta$, we find



      $$f'(theta) = pi tan(pi theta) - 2theta$$



      Since $pi theta$ is in the first quadrant, we know that
      $tan(pi theta) > pi theta$. It follows that
      $pi tan(pi theta) > pi^2 theta > 2 theta$ Hence $f'(theta) > 0$ and $f(theta)$ is strictly increasing on $(0, 0.5)$.
      It follows that eqn$(3.)$, eqn$(2.)$, and therefore eqn$(1.)$ is true.






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      • For the readers, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/98998/… for a geometric proof that $tan(x) > x$ for $x$ in first quadrant.
        – Dzoooks
        Jul 19 at 16:40










      Your Answer




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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      In fact, because both sides of $|cospitheta|le e^-VertthetaVert^2$ are symmetric around $frac12$ ($f(theta)=f(1-theta)$), we only need to check $0le e^-theta^2-cospitheta$ for $thetain[0,1/2]$. This can be rewritten as
      $$e^-theta^2gecospithetatag1$$
      The idea of the proof of $(1)$ is to find two polynomials $p(x),q(x)$ with $cospi xle q(x)le p(x)le e^-x^2$ with $xin[0,1/2]$ and then prove $q(x)le p(x)$ over the same range of $x$. These polynomials are truncations of the Maclaurin series of the two sides of $(1)$, to $x^2$ for the LHS and to $x^4$ for the RHS, so we have
      $$e^-x^2ge 1-fracx^22ge1-frac(pi x)^22+frac(pi x)^424gecospi x$$
      $$-fracx^22ge-frac(pi x)^22+frac(pi x)^424$$
      $$-frac12ge-fracpi^22+fracpi^4x^224$$
      $$fracpi^2-12cdotfrac24pi^4ge x^2$$
      $$xlesqrtfracpi^2-12cdotfrac24pi^4=1.045dots$$
      Since this contains $[0,1/2]$, $q(x)le p(x)$ over the range in question and $(1)$ is proved.






      share|cite|improve this answer



























        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted










        In fact, because both sides of $|cospitheta|le e^-VertthetaVert^2$ are symmetric around $frac12$ ($f(theta)=f(1-theta)$), we only need to check $0le e^-theta^2-cospitheta$ for $thetain[0,1/2]$. This can be rewritten as
        $$e^-theta^2gecospithetatag1$$
        The idea of the proof of $(1)$ is to find two polynomials $p(x),q(x)$ with $cospi xle q(x)le p(x)le e^-x^2$ with $xin[0,1/2]$ and then prove $q(x)le p(x)$ over the same range of $x$. These polynomials are truncations of the Maclaurin series of the two sides of $(1)$, to $x^2$ for the LHS and to $x^4$ for the RHS, so we have
        $$e^-x^2ge 1-fracx^22ge1-frac(pi x)^22+frac(pi x)^424gecospi x$$
        $$-fracx^22ge-frac(pi x)^22+frac(pi x)^424$$
        $$-frac12ge-fracpi^22+fracpi^4x^224$$
        $$fracpi^2-12cdotfrac24pi^4ge x^2$$
        $$xlesqrtfracpi^2-12cdotfrac24pi^4=1.045dots$$
        Since this contains $[0,1/2]$, $q(x)le p(x)$ over the range in question and $(1)$ is proved.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          In fact, because both sides of $|cospitheta|le e^-VertthetaVert^2$ are symmetric around $frac12$ ($f(theta)=f(1-theta)$), we only need to check $0le e^-theta^2-cospitheta$ for $thetain[0,1/2]$. This can be rewritten as
          $$e^-theta^2gecospithetatag1$$
          The idea of the proof of $(1)$ is to find two polynomials $p(x),q(x)$ with $cospi xle q(x)le p(x)le e^-x^2$ with $xin[0,1/2]$ and then prove $q(x)le p(x)$ over the same range of $x$. These polynomials are truncations of the Maclaurin series of the two sides of $(1)$, to $x^2$ for the LHS and to $x^4$ for the RHS, so we have
          $$e^-x^2ge 1-fracx^22ge1-frac(pi x)^22+frac(pi x)^424gecospi x$$
          $$-fracx^22ge-frac(pi x)^22+frac(pi x)^424$$
          $$-frac12ge-fracpi^22+fracpi^4x^224$$
          $$fracpi^2-12cdotfrac24pi^4ge x^2$$
          $$xlesqrtfracpi^2-12cdotfrac24pi^4=1.045dots$$
          Since this contains $[0,1/2]$, $q(x)le p(x)$ over the range in question and $(1)$ is proved.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          In fact, because both sides of $|cospitheta|le e^-VertthetaVert^2$ are symmetric around $frac12$ ($f(theta)=f(1-theta)$), we only need to check $0le e^-theta^2-cospitheta$ for $thetain[0,1/2]$. This can be rewritten as
          $$e^-theta^2gecospithetatag1$$
          The idea of the proof of $(1)$ is to find two polynomials $p(x),q(x)$ with $cospi xle q(x)le p(x)le e^-x^2$ with $xin[0,1/2]$ and then prove $q(x)le p(x)$ over the same range of $x$. These polynomials are truncations of the Maclaurin series of the two sides of $(1)$, to $x^2$ for the LHS and to $x^4$ for the RHS, so we have
          $$e^-x^2ge 1-fracx^22ge1-frac(pi x)^22+frac(pi x)^424gecospi x$$
          $$-fracx^22ge-frac(pi x)^22+frac(pi x)^424$$
          $$-frac12ge-fracpi^22+fracpi^4x^224$$
          $$fracpi^2-12cdotfrac24pi^4ge x^2$$
          $$xlesqrtfracpi^2-12cdotfrac24pi^4=1.045dots$$
          Since this contains $[0,1/2]$, $q(x)le p(x)$ over the range in question and $(1)$ is proved.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 19 at 17:43


























          answered Jul 19 at 6:04









          Parcly Taxel

          33.6k136588




          33.6k136588




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Let's prove the first inequality, namely
              $$
              tag1 cos (pi theta) leq e^-theta^2 text for theta in [0,1/2].
              $$



              First, we get rid of the exponential by observing that for any $xgeq 0$ we have $e^-x geq 1-x$, hence it is enough to show
              $$
              tag2 cos (pi theta) leq 1-theta^2 text for theta in [0,1/2].
              $$



              Consider the function $f(theta) = 1-theta^2 - cos(pi theta)$. We will simply analyse it through differentiation.



              We have
              $$f'(x) = -2theta +pi sin(pi theta),$$
              and
              $$
              f''(theta) = - 2 + pi^2 cos(pi theta).
              $$
              Set $theta_0 = frac1pi arccos frac2pi^2$ and notice that $f''(theta) > 0$ for all $theta in [0, theta_0)$ and $f''(theta) <0 $ when $theta> theta_0$. This shows that $f$ is convex in $[0,theta_0)$ and is concave in $(theta_0, 1/2]$.
              Since $f'(0)= 0$ and $f''>0$ in $[0,theta_0)$ we see that $f'$ must be positive in $(0,theta_0)$ and hence $f$ is increasing in $[0,theta_0)$; in particular
              $f(theta) geq 0$ in $[0,theta_0)$ and $f(theta_0) >0$.



              Finally, $f$ is concave in $(theta_0, 1/2]$ and is positive at the both endpoints of this interval, hence it cannot become $0$ in $(theta_0, 1/2]$, since concavity forces $f$ to stay above the straight line joining the points of its graph at $theta_0$ and $1/2$.



              I haven't tried the second inequality, but should be something similar.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                Let's prove the first inequality, namely
                $$
                tag1 cos (pi theta) leq e^-theta^2 text for theta in [0,1/2].
                $$



                First, we get rid of the exponential by observing that for any $xgeq 0$ we have $e^-x geq 1-x$, hence it is enough to show
                $$
                tag2 cos (pi theta) leq 1-theta^2 text for theta in [0,1/2].
                $$



                Consider the function $f(theta) = 1-theta^2 - cos(pi theta)$. We will simply analyse it through differentiation.



                We have
                $$f'(x) = -2theta +pi sin(pi theta),$$
                and
                $$
                f''(theta) = - 2 + pi^2 cos(pi theta).
                $$
                Set $theta_0 = frac1pi arccos frac2pi^2$ and notice that $f''(theta) > 0$ for all $theta in [0, theta_0)$ and $f''(theta) <0 $ when $theta> theta_0$. This shows that $f$ is convex in $[0,theta_0)$ and is concave in $(theta_0, 1/2]$.
                Since $f'(0)= 0$ and $f''>0$ in $[0,theta_0)$ we see that $f'$ must be positive in $(0,theta_0)$ and hence $f$ is increasing in $[0,theta_0)$; in particular
                $f(theta) geq 0$ in $[0,theta_0)$ and $f(theta_0) >0$.



                Finally, $f$ is concave in $(theta_0, 1/2]$ and is positive at the both endpoints of this interval, hence it cannot become $0$ in $(theta_0, 1/2]$, since concavity forces $f$ to stay above the straight line joining the points of its graph at $theta_0$ and $1/2$.



                I haven't tried the second inequality, but should be something similar.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  Let's prove the first inequality, namely
                  $$
                  tag1 cos (pi theta) leq e^-theta^2 text for theta in [0,1/2].
                  $$



                  First, we get rid of the exponential by observing that for any $xgeq 0$ we have $e^-x geq 1-x$, hence it is enough to show
                  $$
                  tag2 cos (pi theta) leq 1-theta^2 text for theta in [0,1/2].
                  $$



                  Consider the function $f(theta) = 1-theta^2 - cos(pi theta)$. We will simply analyse it through differentiation.



                  We have
                  $$f'(x) = -2theta +pi sin(pi theta),$$
                  and
                  $$
                  f''(theta) = - 2 + pi^2 cos(pi theta).
                  $$
                  Set $theta_0 = frac1pi arccos frac2pi^2$ and notice that $f''(theta) > 0$ for all $theta in [0, theta_0)$ and $f''(theta) <0 $ when $theta> theta_0$. This shows that $f$ is convex in $[0,theta_0)$ and is concave in $(theta_0, 1/2]$.
                  Since $f'(0)= 0$ and $f''>0$ in $[0,theta_0)$ we see that $f'$ must be positive in $(0,theta_0)$ and hence $f$ is increasing in $[0,theta_0)$; in particular
                  $f(theta) geq 0$ in $[0,theta_0)$ and $f(theta_0) >0$.



                  Finally, $f$ is concave in $(theta_0, 1/2]$ and is positive at the both endpoints of this interval, hence it cannot become $0$ in $(theta_0, 1/2]$, since concavity forces $f$ to stay above the straight line joining the points of its graph at $theta_0$ and $1/2$.



                  I haven't tried the second inequality, but should be something similar.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  Let's prove the first inequality, namely
                  $$
                  tag1 cos (pi theta) leq e^-theta^2 text for theta in [0,1/2].
                  $$



                  First, we get rid of the exponential by observing that for any $xgeq 0$ we have $e^-x geq 1-x$, hence it is enough to show
                  $$
                  tag2 cos (pi theta) leq 1-theta^2 text for theta in [0,1/2].
                  $$



                  Consider the function $f(theta) = 1-theta^2 - cos(pi theta)$. We will simply analyse it through differentiation.



                  We have
                  $$f'(x) = -2theta +pi sin(pi theta),$$
                  and
                  $$
                  f''(theta) = - 2 + pi^2 cos(pi theta).
                  $$
                  Set $theta_0 = frac1pi arccos frac2pi^2$ and notice that $f''(theta) > 0$ for all $theta in [0, theta_0)$ and $f''(theta) <0 $ when $theta> theta_0$. This shows that $f$ is convex in $[0,theta_0)$ and is concave in $(theta_0, 1/2]$.
                  Since $f'(0)= 0$ and $f''>0$ in $[0,theta_0)$ we see that $f'$ must be positive in $(0,theta_0)$ and hence $f$ is increasing in $[0,theta_0)$; in particular
                  $f(theta) geq 0$ in $[0,theta_0)$ and $f(theta_0) >0$.



                  Finally, $f$ is concave in $(theta_0, 1/2]$ and is positive at the both endpoints of this interval, hence it cannot become $0$ in $(theta_0, 1/2]$, since concavity forces $f$ to stay above the straight line joining the points of its graph at $theta_0$ and $1/2$.



                  I haven't tried the second inequality, but should be something similar.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Jul 19 at 5:45









                  Hayk

                  1,39129




                  1,39129




















                      up vote
                      2
                      down vote













                      To look at Parly Taxels answer from a different direction.



                      Prove that
                      $$|cos(pi theta) | leq e^theta
                      quad textwhere theta in [0, 0.5]tag1.$$



                      and where $|theta| = left|theta - lfloortheta + 0.5 rfloor right|$ is the distance to the integer nearest to $theta$.



                      It's easy to check this for $theta = 0$ and for $theta = 0.5$. So we can ignore those numbers from here on. We can now rewrite eqn$(1)$ as



                      $$cos(pi theta) leq e^-theta^2
                      quad textwhere theta in (0, 0.5)tag2.$$



                      Since $ln$ is strictly increasing on $(0, infty)$, eqn$(2.)$ is equivalent to



                      $$ln(cos(pi theta)) leq -theta^2
                      quad textwhere theta in (0, 0.5)tag3.$$



                      Let $f(theta) = -ln(cos(pi theta)) - theta^2$.



                      Taking the derivative of both sides wrt $theta$, we find



                      $$f'(theta) = pi tan(pi theta) - 2theta$$



                      Since $pi theta$ is in the first quadrant, we know that
                      $tan(pi theta) > pi theta$. It follows that
                      $pi tan(pi theta) > pi^2 theta > 2 theta$ Hence $f'(theta) > 0$ and $f(theta)$ is strictly increasing on $(0, 0.5)$.
                      It follows that eqn$(3.)$, eqn$(2.)$, and therefore eqn$(1.)$ is true.






                      share|cite|improve this answer























                      • For the readers, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/98998/… for a geometric proof that $tan(x) > x$ for $x$ in first quadrant.
                        – Dzoooks
                        Jul 19 at 16:40














                      up vote
                      2
                      down vote













                      To look at Parly Taxels answer from a different direction.



                      Prove that
                      $$|cos(pi theta) | leq e^theta
                      quad textwhere theta in [0, 0.5]tag1.$$



                      and where $|theta| = left|theta - lfloortheta + 0.5 rfloor right|$ is the distance to the integer nearest to $theta$.



                      It's easy to check this for $theta = 0$ and for $theta = 0.5$. So we can ignore those numbers from here on. We can now rewrite eqn$(1)$ as



                      $$cos(pi theta) leq e^-theta^2
                      quad textwhere theta in (0, 0.5)tag2.$$



                      Since $ln$ is strictly increasing on $(0, infty)$, eqn$(2.)$ is equivalent to



                      $$ln(cos(pi theta)) leq -theta^2
                      quad textwhere theta in (0, 0.5)tag3.$$



                      Let $f(theta) = -ln(cos(pi theta)) - theta^2$.



                      Taking the derivative of both sides wrt $theta$, we find



                      $$f'(theta) = pi tan(pi theta) - 2theta$$



                      Since $pi theta$ is in the first quadrant, we know that
                      $tan(pi theta) > pi theta$. It follows that
                      $pi tan(pi theta) > pi^2 theta > 2 theta$ Hence $f'(theta) > 0$ and $f(theta)$ is strictly increasing on $(0, 0.5)$.
                      It follows that eqn$(3.)$, eqn$(2.)$, and therefore eqn$(1.)$ is true.






                      share|cite|improve this answer























                      • For the readers, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/98998/… for a geometric proof that $tan(x) > x$ for $x$ in first quadrant.
                        – Dzoooks
                        Jul 19 at 16:40












                      up vote
                      2
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      2
                      down vote









                      To look at Parly Taxels answer from a different direction.



                      Prove that
                      $$|cos(pi theta) | leq e^theta
                      quad textwhere theta in [0, 0.5]tag1.$$



                      and where $|theta| = left|theta - lfloortheta + 0.5 rfloor right|$ is the distance to the integer nearest to $theta$.



                      It's easy to check this for $theta = 0$ and for $theta = 0.5$. So we can ignore those numbers from here on. We can now rewrite eqn$(1)$ as



                      $$cos(pi theta) leq e^-theta^2
                      quad textwhere theta in (0, 0.5)tag2.$$



                      Since $ln$ is strictly increasing on $(0, infty)$, eqn$(2.)$ is equivalent to



                      $$ln(cos(pi theta)) leq -theta^2
                      quad textwhere theta in (0, 0.5)tag3.$$



                      Let $f(theta) = -ln(cos(pi theta)) - theta^2$.



                      Taking the derivative of both sides wrt $theta$, we find



                      $$f'(theta) = pi tan(pi theta) - 2theta$$



                      Since $pi theta$ is in the first quadrant, we know that
                      $tan(pi theta) > pi theta$. It follows that
                      $pi tan(pi theta) > pi^2 theta > 2 theta$ Hence $f'(theta) > 0$ and $f(theta)$ is strictly increasing on $(0, 0.5)$.
                      It follows that eqn$(3.)$, eqn$(2.)$, and therefore eqn$(1.)$ is true.






                      share|cite|improve this answer















                      To look at Parly Taxels answer from a different direction.



                      Prove that
                      $$|cos(pi theta) | leq e^theta
                      quad textwhere theta in [0, 0.5]tag1.$$



                      and where $|theta| = left|theta - lfloortheta + 0.5 rfloor right|$ is the distance to the integer nearest to $theta$.



                      It's easy to check this for $theta = 0$ and for $theta = 0.5$. So we can ignore those numbers from here on. We can now rewrite eqn$(1)$ as



                      $$cos(pi theta) leq e^-theta^2
                      quad textwhere theta in (0, 0.5)tag2.$$



                      Since $ln$ is strictly increasing on $(0, infty)$, eqn$(2.)$ is equivalent to



                      $$ln(cos(pi theta)) leq -theta^2
                      quad textwhere theta in (0, 0.5)tag3.$$



                      Let $f(theta) = -ln(cos(pi theta)) - theta^2$.



                      Taking the derivative of both sides wrt $theta$, we find



                      $$f'(theta) = pi tan(pi theta) - 2theta$$



                      Since $pi theta$ is in the first quadrant, we know that
                      $tan(pi theta) > pi theta$. It follows that
                      $pi tan(pi theta) > pi^2 theta > 2 theta$ Hence $f'(theta) > 0$ and $f(theta)$ is strictly increasing on $(0, 0.5)$.
                      It follows that eqn$(3.)$, eqn$(2.)$, and therefore eqn$(1.)$ is true.







                      share|cite|improve this answer















                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Jul 19 at 20:24


























                      answered Jul 19 at 9:25









                      steven gregory

                      16.4k22055




                      16.4k22055











                      • For the readers, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/98998/… for a geometric proof that $tan(x) > x$ for $x$ in first quadrant.
                        – Dzoooks
                        Jul 19 at 16:40
















                      • For the readers, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/98998/… for a geometric proof that $tan(x) > x$ for $x$ in first quadrant.
                        – Dzoooks
                        Jul 19 at 16:40















                      For the readers, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/98998/… for a geometric proof that $tan(x) > x$ for $x$ in first quadrant.
                      – Dzoooks
                      Jul 19 at 16:40




                      For the readers, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/98998/… for a geometric proof that $tan(x) > x$ for $x$ in first quadrant.
                      – Dzoooks
                      Jul 19 at 16:40












                       

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