Prove that there is no positive integer $n$ such that $1^2000 + 2^2000 + ldots + n^2000$ is prime.

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15
down vote

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Prove that there is no positive integer $n$ such that the following number is prime:
$$S_n = 1^2000 + 2^2000 + ldots + n^2000$$



I was thinking about the last digit of the number. For certain values of $n$, the last digit of $S$ is even, so $S$ can't be prime. But that's not enough. Can you give me a hint, please? Thanks!







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  • Is it true that $sum_k=1^nk^p+1$ is a non-prime for every prime $p$ greater than $3$?
    – uniquesolution
    Jul 19 at 13:54










  • @lulu, I was thinking that all the odd numbers will yield odd last digits that form even. (but there need to even odd terms for that.) I can be hasty at times.
    – prog_SAHIL
    Jul 19 at 13:59










  • @prog_SAHIL Not necessarily. What you just thought would be true when $n equiv 1 pmod 4$
    – Mathejunior
    Jul 19 at 14:13






  • 6




    Where did you find this problem?
    – Oldboy
    Jul 19 at 14:33






  • 1




    @Peter The quantity is always divisible by $fracngcd(n, 2001!)$, so your statement is true in all but at most finitely many cases.
    – Dylan
    Jul 20 at 9:12














up vote
15
down vote

favorite
5












Prove that there is no positive integer $n$ such that the following number is prime:
$$S_n = 1^2000 + 2^2000 + ldots + n^2000$$



I was thinking about the last digit of the number. For certain values of $n$, the last digit of $S$ is even, so $S$ can't be prime. But that's not enough. Can you give me a hint, please? Thanks!







share|cite|improve this question





















  • Is it true that $sum_k=1^nk^p+1$ is a non-prime for every prime $p$ greater than $3$?
    – uniquesolution
    Jul 19 at 13:54










  • @lulu, I was thinking that all the odd numbers will yield odd last digits that form even. (but there need to even odd terms for that.) I can be hasty at times.
    – prog_SAHIL
    Jul 19 at 13:59










  • @prog_SAHIL Not necessarily. What you just thought would be true when $n equiv 1 pmod 4$
    – Mathejunior
    Jul 19 at 14:13






  • 6




    Where did you find this problem?
    – Oldboy
    Jul 19 at 14:33






  • 1




    @Peter The quantity is always divisible by $fracngcd(n, 2001!)$, so your statement is true in all but at most finitely many cases.
    – Dylan
    Jul 20 at 9:12












up vote
15
down vote

favorite
5









up vote
15
down vote

favorite
5






5





Prove that there is no positive integer $n$ such that the following number is prime:
$$S_n = 1^2000 + 2^2000 + ldots + n^2000$$



I was thinking about the last digit of the number. For certain values of $n$, the last digit of $S$ is even, so $S$ can't be prime. But that's not enough. Can you give me a hint, please? Thanks!







share|cite|improve this question













Prove that there is no positive integer $n$ such that the following number is prime:
$$S_n = 1^2000 + 2^2000 + ldots + n^2000$$



I was thinking about the last digit of the number. For certain values of $n$, the last digit of $S$ is even, so $S$ can't be prime. But that's not enough. Can you give me a hint, please? Thanks!









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 19 at 16:50









Peter

45.1k939119




45.1k939119









asked Jul 19 at 13:36









Iulian Oleniuc

3619




3619











  • Is it true that $sum_k=1^nk^p+1$ is a non-prime for every prime $p$ greater than $3$?
    – uniquesolution
    Jul 19 at 13:54










  • @lulu, I was thinking that all the odd numbers will yield odd last digits that form even. (but there need to even odd terms for that.) I can be hasty at times.
    – prog_SAHIL
    Jul 19 at 13:59










  • @prog_SAHIL Not necessarily. What you just thought would be true when $n equiv 1 pmod 4$
    – Mathejunior
    Jul 19 at 14:13






  • 6




    Where did you find this problem?
    – Oldboy
    Jul 19 at 14:33






  • 1




    @Peter The quantity is always divisible by $fracngcd(n, 2001!)$, so your statement is true in all but at most finitely many cases.
    – Dylan
    Jul 20 at 9:12
















  • Is it true that $sum_k=1^nk^p+1$ is a non-prime for every prime $p$ greater than $3$?
    – uniquesolution
    Jul 19 at 13:54










  • @lulu, I was thinking that all the odd numbers will yield odd last digits that form even. (but there need to even odd terms for that.) I can be hasty at times.
    – prog_SAHIL
    Jul 19 at 13:59










  • @prog_SAHIL Not necessarily. What you just thought would be true when $n equiv 1 pmod 4$
    – Mathejunior
    Jul 19 at 14:13






  • 6




    Where did you find this problem?
    – Oldboy
    Jul 19 at 14:33






  • 1




    @Peter The quantity is always divisible by $fracngcd(n, 2001!)$, so your statement is true in all but at most finitely many cases.
    – Dylan
    Jul 20 at 9:12















Is it true that $sum_k=1^nk^p+1$ is a non-prime for every prime $p$ greater than $3$?
– uniquesolution
Jul 19 at 13:54




Is it true that $sum_k=1^nk^p+1$ is a non-prime for every prime $p$ greater than $3$?
– uniquesolution
Jul 19 at 13:54












@lulu, I was thinking that all the odd numbers will yield odd last digits that form even. (but there need to even odd terms for that.) I can be hasty at times.
– prog_SAHIL
Jul 19 at 13:59




@lulu, I was thinking that all the odd numbers will yield odd last digits that form even. (but there need to even odd terms for that.) I can be hasty at times.
– prog_SAHIL
Jul 19 at 13:59












@prog_SAHIL Not necessarily. What you just thought would be true when $n equiv 1 pmod 4$
– Mathejunior
Jul 19 at 14:13




@prog_SAHIL Not necessarily. What you just thought would be true when $n equiv 1 pmod 4$
– Mathejunior
Jul 19 at 14:13




6




6




Where did you find this problem?
– Oldboy
Jul 19 at 14:33




Where did you find this problem?
– Oldboy
Jul 19 at 14:33




1




1




@Peter The quantity is always divisible by $fracngcd(n, 2001!)$, so your statement is true in all but at most finitely many cases.
– Dylan
Jul 20 at 9:12




@Peter The quantity is always divisible by $fracngcd(n, 2001!)$, so your statement is true in all but at most finitely many cases.
– Dylan
Jul 20 at 9:12










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
8
down vote



accepted










This is not a complete answer, but it does reduce the problem to checking a finite number ($512$, in fact) of cases. [This is no longer a case. I used a computer to check the remaining cases, and it confirmed that $f(n)$ is never prime.]



Let
$$
f(n) = 1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + n^2000.
$$



It is possible to show that if $p$ is a prime, and $k < p - 1$, then
$$
1^k + 2^k + dots + p^k
$$
is divisible by $p$. It follows that if $n$ has any prime factors $p$ such that $p > 2001$, then $p | f(n)$, and so $f(n)$ is not prime. (We have that $f(n) neq p$ since $f(n) > n^2000 > n geq p$.)



(We can break the sum
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + n^2000
$$
up into $fracnp$ blocks where sum of each block is congruent modulo $p$ to
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 equiv 0 pmod p
$$
)



The only cases that remain is when all of the prime factors of $n$ are less than $2000$. Suppose that $p mid n$, and let $2000 = (p - 1) q + r$ where $r < p - 1$.



We then have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 equiv 1^r + 2^r + dots + (p - 1)^r pmod p
$$
As long as $r neq 0$, we have that this is divisible by $p$. Thus $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$.



We thus have to consider the case where $p - 1 mid 2000$. Thus we can reduce to the case where the only prime factors of $n$ are $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$.



Now suppose that there is a prime $p$ such that $p^2 mid n$. We have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + (p^2)^2000 equiv p left( 1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 right) equiv 0 pmod p.
$$



As before, this implies that $p mid f(n)$. We can thus assume that $n$ is square-free.



Thus if $f(n)$ is a prime, then we must have that $n$ is square-free, and its only prime factors are from among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$. This leaves us with a finite number of cases to check.



Some of these are easy to rule out. e.g. If $n$ is not divisible by $2$ and has an odd number of factors from among $3, 11, 251$, then we have that $n equiv 3 pmod 4$, and in this case we have that $f(n)$ is even.



Perhaps similar arguments work for numbers like
$$
f( 2 times 3 times 5 times 11 times 17 times 41 times 101 times 251 times 401)
$$



I don't think that it would be feasible to check if this number is prime unless there is some small prime which divides it.




Edit: In fact, a similar argument to the one above shows that if $n equiv -1 pmod p$ for any prime $p$ which is not among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. So, in fact
$$
f( 2 times 3 times 5 times 11 times 17 times 41 times 101 times 251 times 401)
$$
is not a prime.



This is because we also have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + (p - 1)^2000 equiv 0 pmod p
$$
in the cases where $2000 < p - 1$.




I've written a python script to check that the only natural numbers $n$ where the above considerations are not sufficient to verify that $f(n)$ is not prime are
$$
1, 2, 3, 5, 10, 15, 11, 33, 17, 255, 374, 101, 8282, 1039391, 13634
$$



I then checked whether $f(n)$ is prime for these numbers using trial division. It is indeed the case that $f(n)$ is not prime in any of these cases, and so $f(n)$ is never prime.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    How so is it clear that for $nleq 2000$ that the sum is not a prime? Any hints?
    – quantum
    Jul 19 at 17:34






  • 1




    @quantum Some of it is covered in the proof above (i.e. the cases where $n$ is not a square-free natural number whose only factors are among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$) You can rule out all of the possibilities except those at the bottom of the post by using the fact that if $n + 1$ is divisible by a prime $p$ that is not on our list above, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. In fact, you can then rule out every case except for $n = 1, 2, 5, 10, 33, 101, 8282$ by using that if $p^2 mid n + 1$ then $p mid f(n)$. For the rest, I calculated $f(n)$ explicitly and used trial division.
    – Dylan
    Jul 20 at 11:08










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
8
down vote



accepted










This is not a complete answer, but it does reduce the problem to checking a finite number ($512$, in fact) of cases. [This is no longer a case. I used a computer to check the remaining cases, and it confirmed that $f(n)$ is never prime.]



Let
$$
f(n) = 1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + n^2000.
$$



It is possible to show that if $p$ is a prime, and $k < p - 1$, then
$$
1^k + 2^k + dots + p^k
$$
is divisible by $p$. It follows that if $n$ has any prime factors $p$ such that $p > 2001$, then $p | f(n)$, and so $f(n)$ is not prime. (We have that $f(n) neq p$ since $f(n) > n^2000 > n geq p$.)



(We can break the sum
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + n^2000
$$
up into $fracnp$ blocks where sum of each block is congruent modulo $p$ to
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 equiv 0 pmod p
$$
)



The only cases that remain is when all of the prime factors of $n$ are less than $2000$. Suppose that $p mid n$, and let $2000 = (p - 1) q + r$ where $r < p - 1$.



We then have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 equiv 1^r + 2^r + dots + (p - 1)^r pmod p
$$
As long as $r neq 0$, we have that this is divisible by $p$. Thus $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$.



We thus have to consider the case where $p - 1 mid 2000$. Thus we can reduce to the case where the only prime factors of $n$ are $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$.



Now suppose that there is a prime $p$ such that $p^2 mid n$. We have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + (p^2)^2000 equiv p left( 1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 right) equiv 0 pmod p.
$$



As before, this implies that $p mid f(n)$. We can thus assume that $n$ is square-free.



Thus if $f(n)$ is a prime, then we must have that $n$ is square-free, and its only prime factors are from among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$. This leaves us with a finite number of cases to check.



Some of these are easy to rule out. e.g. If $n$ is not divisible by $2$ and has an odd number of factors from among $3, 11, 251$, then we have that $n equiv 3 pmod 4$, and in this case we have that $f(n)$ is even.



Perhaps similar arguments work for numbers like
$$
f( 2 times 3 times 5 times 11 times 17 times 41 times 101 times 251 times 401)
$$



I don't think that it would be feasible to check if this number is prime unless there is some small prime which divides it.




Edit: In fact, a similar argument to the one above shows that if $n equiv -1 pmod p$ for any prime $p$ which is not among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. So, in fact
$$
f( 2 times 3 times 5 times 11 times 17 times 41 times 101 times 251 times 401)
$$
is not a prime.



This is because we also have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + (p - 1)^2000 equiv 0 pmod p
$$
in the cases where $2000 < p - 1$.




I've written a python script to check that the only natural numbers $n$ where the above considerations are not sufficient to verify that $f(n)$ is not prime are
$$
1, 2, 3, 5, 10, 15, 11, 33, 17, 255, 374, 101, 8282, 1039391, 13634
$$



I then checked whether $f(n)$ is prime for these numbers using trial division. It is indeed the case that $f(n)$ is not prime in any of these cases, and so $f(n)$ is never prime.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    How so is it clear that for $nleq 2000$ that the sum is not a prime? Any hints?
    – quantum
    Jul 19 at 17:34






  • 1




    @quantum Some of it is covered in the proof above (i.e. the cases where $n$ is not a square-free natural number whose only factors are among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$) You can rule out all of the possibilities except those at the bottom of the post by using the fact that if $n + 1$ is divisible by a prime $p$ that is not on our list above, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. In fact, you can then rule out every case except for $n = 1, 2, 5, 10, 33, 101, 8282$ by using that if $p^2 mid n + 1$ then $p mid f(n)$. For the rest, I calculated $f(n)$ explicitly and used trial division.
    – Dylan
    Jul 20 at 11:08














up vote
8
down vote



accepted










This is not a complete answer, but it does reduce the problem to checking a finite number ($512$, in fact) of cases. [This is no longer a case. I used a computer to check the remaining cases, and it confirmed that $f(n)$ is never prime.]



Let
$$
f(n) = 1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + n^2000.
$$



It is possible to show that if $p$ is a prime, and $k < p - 1$, then
$$
1^k + 2^k + dots + p^k
$$
is divisible by $p$. It follows that if $n$ has any prime factors $p$ such that $p > 2001$, then $p | f(n)$, and so $f(n)$ is not prime. (We have that $f(n) neq p$ since $f(n) > n^2000 > n geq p$.)



(We can break the sum
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + n^2000
$$
up into $fracnp$ blocks where sum of each block is congruent modulo $p$ to
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 equiv 0 pmod p
$$
)



The only cases that remain is when all of the prime factors of $n$ are less than $2000$. Suppose that $p mid n$, and let $2000 = (p - 1) q + r$ where $r < p - 1$.



We then have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 equiv 1^r + 2^r + dots + (p - 1)^r pmod p
$$
As long as $r neq 0$, we have that this is divisible by $p$. Thus $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$.



We thus have to consider the case where $p - 1 mid 2000$. Thus we can reduce to the case where the only prime factors of $n$ are $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$.



Now suppose that there is a prime $p$ such that $p^2 mid n$. We have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + (p^2)^2000 equiv p left( 1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 right) equiv 0 pmod p.
$$



As before, this implies that $p mid f(n)$. We can thus assume that $n$ is square-free.



Thus if $f(n)$ is a prime, then we must have that $n$ is square-free, and its only prime factors are from among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$. This leaves us with a finite number of cases to check.



Some of these are easy to rule out. e.g. If $n$ is not divisible by $2$ and has an odd number of factors from among $3, 11, 251$, then we have that $n equiv 3 pmod 4$, and in this case we have that $f(n)$ is even.



Perhaps similar arguments work for numbers like
$$
f( 2 times 3 times 5 times 11 times 17 times 41 times 101 times 251 times 401)
$$



I don't think that it would be feasible to check if this number is prime unless there is some small prime which divides it.




Edit: In fact, a similar argument to the one above shows that if $n equiv -1 pmod p$ for any prime $p$ which is not among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. So, in fact
$$
f( 2 times 3 times 5 times 11 times 17 times 41 times 101 times 251 times 401)
$$
is not a prime.



This is because we also have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + (p - 1)^2000 equiv 0 pmod p
$$
in the cases where $2000 < p - 1$.




I've written a python script to check that the only natural numbers $n$ where the above considerations are not sufficient to verify that $f(n)$ is not prime are
$$
1, 2, 3, 5, 10, 15, 11, 33, 17, 255, 374, 101, 8282, 1039391, 13634
$$



I then checked whether $f(n)$ is prime for these numbers using trial division. It is indeed the case that $f(n)$ is not prime in any of these cases, and so $f(n)$ is never prime.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    How so is it clear that for $nleq 2000$ that the sum is not a prime? Any hints?
    – quantum
    Jul 19 at 17:34






  • 1




    @quantum Some of it is covered in the proof above (i.e. the cases where $n$ is not a square-free natural number whose only factors are among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$) You can rule out all of the possibilities except those at the bottom of the post by using the fact that if $n + 1$ is divisible by a prime $p$ that is not on our list above, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. In fact, you can then rule out every case except for $n = 1, 2, 5, 10, 33, 101, 8282$ by using that if $p^2 mid n + 1$ then $p mid f(n)$. For the rest, I calculated $f(n)$ explicitly and used trial division.
    – Dylan
    Jul 20 at 11:08












up vote
8
down vote



accepted







up vote
8
down vote



accepted






This is not a complete answer, but it does reduce the problem to checking a finite number ($512$, in fact) of cases. [This is no longer a case. I used a computer to check the remaining cases, and it confirmed that $f(n)$ is never prime.]



Let
$$
f(n) = 1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + n^2000.
$$



It is possible to show that if $p$ is a prime, and $k < p - 1$, then
$$
1^k + 2^k + dots + p^k
$$
is divisible by $p$. It follows that if $n$ has any prime factors $p$ such that $p > 2001$, then $p | f(n)$, and so $f(n)$ is not prime. (We have that $f(n) neq p$ since $f(n) > n^2000 > n geq p$.)



(We can break the sum
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + n^2000
$$
up into $fracnp$ blocks where sum of each block is congruent modulo $p$ to
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 equiv 0 pmod p
$$
)



The only cases that remain is when all of the prime factors of $n$ are less than $2000$. Suppose that $p mid n$, and let $2000 = (p - 1) q + r$ where $r < p - 1$.



We then have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 equiv 1^r + 2^r + dots + (p - 1)^r pmod p
$$
As long as $r neq 0$, we have that this is divisible by $p$. Thus $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$.



We thus have to consider the case where $p - 1 mid 2000$. Thus we can reduce to the case where the only prime factors of $n$ are $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$.



Now suppose that there is a prime $p$ such that $p^2 mid n$. We have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + (p^2)^2000 equiv p left( 1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 right) equiv 0 pmod p.
$$



As before, this implies that $p mid f(n)$. We can thus assume that $n$ is square-free.



Thus if $f(n)$ is a prime, then we must have that $n$ is square-free, and its only prime factors are from among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$. This leaves us with a finite number of cases to check.



Some of these are easy to rule out. e.g. If $n$ is not divisible by $2$ and has an odd number of factors from among $3, 11, 251$, then we have that $n equiv 3 pmod 4$, and in this case we have that $f(n)$ is even.



Perhaps similar arguments work for numbers like
$$
f( 2 times 3 times 5 times 11 times 17 times 41 times 101 times 251 times 401)
$$



I don't think that it would be feasible to check if this number is prime unless there is some small prime which divides it.




Edit: In fact, a similar argument to the one above shows that if $n equiv -1 pmod p$ for any prime $p$ which is not among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. So, in fact
$$
f( 2 times 3 times 5 times 11 times 17 times 41 times 101 times 251 times 401)
$$
is not a prime.



This is because we also have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + (p - 1)^2000 equiv 0 pmod p
$$
in the cases where $2000 < p - 1$.




I've written a python script to check that the only natural numbers $n$ where the above considerations are not sufficient to verify that $f(n)$ is not prime are
$$
1, 2, 3, 5, 10, 15, 11, 33, 17, 255, 374, 101, 8282, 1039391, 13634
$$



I then checked whether $f(n)$ is prime for these numbers using trial division. It is indeed the case that $f(n)$ is not prime in any of these cases, and so $f(n)$ is never prime.






share|cite|improve this answer















This is not a complete answer, but it does reduce the problem to checking a finite number ($512$, in fact) of cases. [This is no longer a case. I used a computer to check the remaining cases, and it confirmed that $f(n)$ is never prime.]



Let
$$
f(n) = 1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + n^2000.
$$



It is possible to show that if $p$ is a prime, and $k < p - 1$, then
$$
1^k + 2^k + dots + p^k
$$
is divisible by $p$. It follows that if $n$ has any prime factors $p$ such that $p > 2001$, then $p | f(n)$, and so $f(n)$ is not prime. (We have that $f(n) neq p$ since $f(n) > n^2000 > n geq p$.)



(We can break the sum
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + n^2000
$$
up into $fracnp$ blocks where sum of each block is congruent modulo $p$ to
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 equiv 0 pmod p
$$
)



The only cases that remain is when all of the prime factors of $n$ are less than $2000$. Suppose that $p mid n$, and let $2000 = (p - 1) q + r$ where $r < p - 1$.



We then have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 equiv 1^r + 2^r + dots + (p - 1)^r pmod p
$$
As long as $r neq 0$, we have that this is divisible by $p$. Thus $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$.



We thus have to consider the case where $p - 1 mid 2000$. Thus we can reduce to the case where the only prime factors of $n$ are $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$.



Now suppose that there is a prime $p$ such that $p^2 mid n$. We have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + (p^2)^2000 equiv p left( 1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + p^2000 right) equiv 0 pmod p.
$$



As before, this implies that $p mid f(n)$. We can thus assume that $n$ is square-free.



Thus if $f(n)$ is a prime, then we must have that $n$ is square-free, and its only prime factors are from among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$. This leaves us with a finite number of cases to check.



Some of these are easy to rule out. e.g. If $n$ is not divisible by $2$ and has an odd number of factors from among $3, 11, 251$, then we have that $n equiv 3 pmod 4$, and in this case we have that $f(n)$ is even.



Perhaps similar arguments work for numbers like
$$
f( 2 times 3 times 5 times 11 times 17 times 41 times 101 times 251 times 401)
$$



I don't think that it would be feasible to check if this number is prime unless there is some small prime which divides it.




Edit: In fact, a similar argument to the one above shows that if $n equiv -1 pmod p$ for any prime $p$ which is not among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. So, in fact
$$
f( 2 times 3 times 5 times 11 times 17 times 41 times 101 times 251 times 401)
$$
is not a prime.



This is because we also have that
$$
1^2000 + 2^2000 + dots + (p - 1)^2000 equiv 0 pmod p
$$
in the cases where $2000 < p - 1$.




I've written a python script to check that the only natural numbers $n$ where the above considerations are not sufficient to verify that $f(n)$ is not prime are
$$
1, 2, 3, 5, 10, 15, 11, 33, 17, 255, 374, 101, 8282, 1039391, 13634
$$



I then checked whether $f(n)$ is prime for these numbers using trial division. It is indeed the case that $f(n)$ is not prime in any of these cases, and so $f(n)$ is never prime.







share|cite|improve this answer















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edited Jul 19 at 15:57


























answered Jul 19 at 14:44









Dylan

5,67231134




5,67231134







  • 1




    How so is it clear that for $nleq 2000$ that the sum is not a prime? Any hints?
    – quantum
    Jul 19 at 17:34






  • 1




    @quantum Some of it is covered in the proof above (i.e. the cases where $n$ is not a square-free natural number whose only factors are among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$) You can rule out all of the possibilities except those at the bottom of the post by using the fact that if $n + 1$ is divisible by a prime $p$ that is not on our list above, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. In fact, you can then rule out every case except for $n = 1, 2, 5, 10, 33, 101, 8282$ by using that if $p^2 mid n + 1$ then $p mid f(n)$. For the rest, I calculated $f(n)$ explicitly and used trial division.
    – Dylan
    Jul 20 at 11:08












  • 1




    How so is it clear that for $nleq 2000$ that the sum is not a prime? Any hints?
    – quantum
    Jul 19 at 17:34






  • 1




    @quantum Some of it is covered in the proof above (i.e. the cases where $n$ is not a square-free natural number whose only factors are among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$) You can rule out all of the possibilities except those at the bottom of the post by using the fact that if $n + 1$ is divisible by a prime $p$ that is not on our list above, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. In fact, you can then rule out every case except for $n = 1, 2, 5, 10, 33, 101, 8282$ by using that if $p^2 mid n + 1$ then $p mid f(n)$. For the rest, I calculated $f(n)$ explicitly and used trial division.
    – Dylan
    Jul 20 at 11:08







1




1




How so is it clear that for $nleq 2000$ that the sum is not a prime? Any hints?
– quantum
Jul 19 at 17:34




How so is it clear that for $nleq 2000$ that the sum is not a prime? Any hints?
– quantum
Jul 19 at 17:34




1




1




@quantum Some of it is covered in the proof above (i.e. the cases where $n$ is not a square-free natural number whose only factors are among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$) You can rule out all of the possibilities except those at the bottom of the post by using the fact that if $n + 1$ is divisible by a prime $p$ that is not on our list above, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. In fact, you can then rule out every case except for $n = 1, 2, 5, 10, 33, 101, 8282$ by using that if $p^2 mid n + 1$ then $p mid f(n)$. For the rest, I calculated $f(n)$ explicitly and used trial division.
– Dylan
Jul 20 at 11:08




@quantum Some of it is covered in the proof above (i.e. the cases where $n$ is not a square-free natural number whose only factors are among $2, 3, 5, 11, 17, 41, 101, 251, 401$) You can rule out all of the possibilities except those at the bottom of the post by using the fact that if $n + 1$ is divisible by a prime $p$ that is not on our list above, then $f(n)$ is divisible by $p$. In fact, you can then rule out every case except for $n = 1, 2, 5, 10, 33, 101, 8282$ by using that if $p^2 mid n + 1$ then $p mid f(n)$. For the rest, I calculated $f(n)$ explicitly and used trial division.
– Dylan
Jul 20 at 11:08












 

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