Real-valued function $f : mathbbR to overlinemathbbR$ is continuous iff its graph is closed

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I'm considering functions $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ with the codomain extended to the extended reals $mathbbR cup pminfty.$ Now if $f$ is continuous then the function $g : mathbbR times overlinemathbbR to mathbbR : (x, y) mapsto y - f(x)$ is also continuous. Then the graph of $f$ is the set $g^-1(0)$ and is therefore closed.



It seems plausible that the converse is true - that is, that if the graph of $f : mathbbR to overlinemathbbR$ is closed then $f$ is continuous - but I wouldn't be too surprised if there's an annoying counterexample.



Is the converse true?







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  • The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
    – tomasz
    Jul 30 at 15:17






  • 1




    Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
    – tomasz
    Jul 30 at 15:19















up vote
4
down vote

favorite












I'm considering functions $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ with the codomain extended to the extended reals $mathbbR cup pminfty.$ Now if $f$ is continuous then the function $g : mathbbR times overlinemathbbR to mathbbR : (x, y) mapsto y - f(x)$ is also continuous. Then the graph of $f$ is the set $g^-1(0)$ and is therefore closed.



It seems plausible that the converse is true - that is, that if the graph of $f : mathbbR to overlinemathbbR$ is closed then $f$ is continuous - but I wouldn't be too surprised if there's an annoying counterexample.



Is the converse true?







share|cite|improve this question



















  • The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
    – tomasz
    Jul 30 at 15:17






  • 1




    Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
    – tomasz
    Jul 30 at 15:19













up vote
4
down vote

favorite









up vote
4
down vote

favorite











I'm considering functions $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ with the codomain extended to the extended reals $mathbbR cup pminfty.$ Now if $f$ is continuous then the function $g : mathbbR times overlinemathbbR to mathbbR : (x, y) mapsto y - f(x)$ is also continuous. Then the graph of $f$ is the set $g^-1(0)$ and is therefore closed.



It seems plausible that the converse is true - that is, that if the graph of $f : mathbbR to overlinemathbbR$ is closed then $f$ is continuous - but I wouldn't be too surprised if there's an annoying counterexample.



Is the converse true?







share|cite|improve this question











I'm considering functions $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ with the codomain extended to the extended reals $mathbbR cup pminfty.$ Now if $f$ is continuous then the function $g : mathbbR times overlinemathbbR to mathbbR : (x, y) mapsto y - f(x)$ is also continuous. Then the graph of $f$ is the set $g^-1(0)$ and is therefore closed.



It seems plausible that the converse is true - that is, that if the graph of $f : mathbbR to overlinemathbbR$ is closed then $f$ is continuous - but I wouldn't be too surprised if there's an annoying counterexample.



Is the converse true?









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 30 at 12:32









Andrew

871211




871211











  • The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
    – tomasz
    Jul 30 at 15:17






  • 1




    Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
    – tomasz
    Jul 30 at 15:19

















  • The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
    – tomasz
    Jul 30 at 15:17






  • 1




    Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
    – tomasz
    Jul 30 at 15:19
















The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:17




The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:17




1




1




Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:19





Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:19











2 Answers
2






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oldest

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up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Suppose $f$ is not continuous at some $x_0$. Then there is a sequence $(x_n)$ with $x_n to x_0$, but $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.



Switching to a subsequence, we can assume $f(x_n)to y in overlinemathbbR$, since $overlinemathbbR$ is sequentially compact. Since th graph of $f$ is closed, this means $(x_0,y)in mathrmgraph f$ and hence $y=f(x_0)$. Hence, (along the subsequence) $f(x_n)to y =f(x_0)$, in contradiction to $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.






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  • Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
    – Andrew
    Jul 30 at 18:30

















up vote
2
down vote













This is true. Given $[a,b] subset mathbbR$, $mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is compact (since it is a closed set inside a compact one). It follows that $pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is a homeomorphism with its image, and hence $f|_[a,b]=pi_2 circ (pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR))^-1$ is continuous. Therefore $f|_(a,b)$ is continuous. Since this holds for arbitrary $(a,b) subset mathbbR$, $f$ is continuous in the whole real line.



Note that this generalizes to the following statement:




Let $X$ be locally compact and Hausdorff, and $Y$ be compact. If $f:X to Y$ is a function such that $mathrmGr(f)$ is closed, then $f$ is continuous.







share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
    – Andrew
    Jul 30 at 18:31










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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Suppose $f$ is not continuous at some $x_0$. Then there is a sequence $(x_n)$ with $x_n to x_0$, but $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.



Switching to a subsequence, we can assume $f(x_n)to y in overlinemathbbR$, since $overlinemathbbR$ is sequentially compact. Since th graph of $f$ is closed, this means $(x_0,y)in mathrmgraph f$ and hence $y=f(x_0)$. Hence, (along the subsequence) $f(x_n)to y =f(x_0)$, in contradiction to $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
    – Andrew
    Jul 30 at 18:30














up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Suppose $f$ is not continuous at some $x_0$. Then there is a sequence $(x_n)$ with $x_n to x_0$, but $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.



Switching to a subsequence, we can assume $f(x_n)to y in overlinemathbbR$, since $overlinemathbbR$ is sequentially compact. Since th graph of $f$ is closed, this means $(x_0,y)in mathrmgraph f$ and hence $y=f(x_0)$. Hence, (along the subsequence) $f(x_n)to y =f(x_0)$, in contradiction to $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
    – Andrew
    Jul 30 at 18:30












up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






Suppose $f$ is not continuous at some $x_0$. Then there is a sequence $(x_n)$ with $x_n to x_0$, but $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.



Switching to a subsequence, we can assume $f(x_n)to y in overlinemathbbR$, since $overlinemathbbR$ is sequentially compact. Since th graph of $f$ is closed, this means $(x_0,y)in mathrmgraph f$ and hence $y=f(x_0)$. Hence, (along the subsequence) $f(x_n)to y =f(x_0)$, in contradiction to $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer













Suppose $f$ is not continuous at some $x_0$. Then there is a sequence $(x_n)$ with $x_n to x_0$, but $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.



Switching to a subsequence, we can assume $f(x_n)to y in overlinemathbbR$, since $overlinemathbbR$ is sequentially compact. Since th graph of $f$ is closed, this means $(x_0,y)in mathrmgraph f$ and hence $y=f(x_0)$. Hence, (along the subsequence) $f(x_n)to y =f(x_0)$, in contradiction to $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.







share|cite|improve this answer













share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer











answered Jul 30 at 15:51









PhoemueX

26.4k22353




26.4k22353











  • Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
    – Andrew
    Jul 30 at 18:30
















  • Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
    – Andrew
    Jul 30 at 18:30















Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:30




Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:30










up vote
2
down vote













This is true. Given $[a,b] subset mathbbR$, $mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is compact (since it is a closed set inside a compact one). It follows that $pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is a homeomorphism with its image, and hence $f|_[a,b]=pi_2 circ (pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR))^-1$ is continuous. Therefore $f|_(a,b)$ is continuous. Since this holds for arbitrary $(a,b) subset mathbbR$, $f$ is continuous in the whole real line.



Note that this generalizes to the following statement:




Let $X$ be locally compact and Hausdorff, and $Y$ be compact. If $f:X to Y$ is a function such that $mathrmGr(f)$ is closed, then $f$ is continuous.







share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
    – Andrew
    Jul 30 at 18:31














up vote
2
down vote













This is true. Given $[a,b] subset mathbbR$, $mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is compact (since it is a closed set inside a compact one). It follows that $pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is a homeomorphism with its image, and hence $f|_[a,b]=pi_2 circ (pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR))^-1$ is continuous. Therefore $f|_(a,b)$ is continuous. Since this holds for arbitrary $(a,b) subset mathbbR$, $f$ is continuous in the whole real line.



Note that this generalizes to the following statement:




Let $X$ be locally compact and Hausdorff, and $Y$ be compact. If $f:X to Y$ is a function such that $mathrmGr(f)$ is closed, then $f$ is continuous.







share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
    – Andrew
    Jul 30 at 18:31












up vote
2
down vote










up vote
2
down vote









This is true. Given $[a,b] subset mathbbR$, $mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is compact (since it is a closed set inside a compact one). It follows that $pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is a homeomorphism with its image, and hence $f|_[a,b]=pi_2 circ (pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR))^-1$ is continuous. Therefore $f|_(a,b)$ is continuous. Since this holds for arbitrary $(a,b) subset mathbbR$, $f$ is continuous in the whole real line.



Note that this generalizes to the following statement:




Let $X$ be locally compact and Hausdorff, and $Y$ be compact. If $f:X to Y$ is a function such that $mathrmGr(f)$ is closed, then $f$ is continuous.







share|cite|improve this answer















This is true. Given $[a,b] subset mathbbR$, $mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is compact (since it is a closed set inside a compact one). It follows that $pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is a homeomorphism with its image, and hence $f|_[a,b]=pi_2 circ (pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR))^-1$ is continuous. Therefore $f|_(a,b)$ is continuous. Since this holds for arbitrary $(a,b) subset mathbbR$, $f$ is continuous in the whole real line.



Note that this generalizes to the following statement:




Let $X$ be locally compact and Hausdorff, and $Y$ be compact. If $f:X to Y$ is a function such that $mathrmGr(f)$ is closed, then $f$ is continuous.








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edited Jul 30 at 16:56


























answered Jul 30 at 16:50









Aloizio Macedo

22.5k23283




22.5k23283











  • Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
    – Andrew
    Jul 30 at 18:31
















  • Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
    – Andrew
    Jul 30 at 18:31















Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:31




Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:31












 

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