Real-valued function $f : mathbbR to overlinemathbbR$ is continuous iff its graph is closed
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I'm considering functions $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ with the codomain extended to the extended reals $mathbbR cup pminfty.$ Now if $f$ is continuous then the function $g : mathbbR times overlinemathbbR to mathbbR : (x, y) mapsto y - f(x)$ is also continuous. Then the graph of $f$ is the set $g^-1(0)$ and is therefore closed.
It seems plausible that the converse is true - that is, that if the graph of $f : mathbbR to overlinemathbbR$ is closed then $f$ is continuous - but I wouldn't be too surprised if there's an annoying counterexample.
Is the converse true?
general-topology continuity
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up vote
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I'm considering functions $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ with the codomain extended to the extended reals $mathbbR cup pminfty.$ Now if $f$ is continuous then the function $g : mathbbR times overlinemathbbR to mathbbR : (x, y) mapsto y - f(x)$ is also continuous. Then the graph of $f$ is the set $g^-1(0)$ and is therefore closed.
It seems plausible that the converse is true - that is, that if the graph of $f : mathbbR to overlinemathbbR$ is closed then $f$ is continuous - but I wouldn't be too surprised if there's an annoying counterexample.
Is the converse true?
general-topology continuity
The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:17
1
Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:19
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
I'm considering functions $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ with the codomain extended to the extended reals $mathbbR cup pminfty.$ Now if $f$ is continuous then the function $g : mathbbR times overlinemathbbR to mathbbR : (x, y) mapsto y - f(x)$ is also continuous. Then the graph of $f$ is the set $g^-1(0)$ and is therefore closed.
It seems plausible that the converse is true - that is, that if the graph of $f : mathbbR to overlinemathbbR$ is closed then $f$ is continuous - but I wouldn't be too surprised if there's an annoying counterexample.
Is the converse true?
general-topology continuity
I'm considering functions $f : mathbbR to mathbbR$ with the codomain extended to the extended reals $mathbbR cup pminfty.$ Now if $f$ is continuous then the function $g : mathbbR times overlinemathbbR to mathbbR : (x, y) mapsto y - f(x)$ is also continuous. Then the graph of $f$ is the set $g^-1(0)$ and is therefore closed.
It seems plausible that the converse is true - that is, that if the graph of $f : mathbbR to overlinemathbbR$ is closed then $f$ is continuous - but I wouldn't be too surprised if there's an annoying counterexample.
Is the converse true?
general-topology continuity
asked Jul 30 at 12:32


Andrew
871211
871211
The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:17
1
Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:19
add a comment |Â
The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:17
1
Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:19
The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:17
The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:17
1
1
Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:19
Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:19
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
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Suppose $f$ is not continuous at some $x_0$. Then there is a sequence $(x_n)$ with $x_n to x_0$, but $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.
Switching to a subsequence, we can assume $f(x_n)to y in overlinemathbbR$, since $overlinemathbbR$ is sequentially compact. Since th graph of $f$ is closed, this means $(x_0,y)in mathrmgraph f$ and hence $y=f(x_0)$. Hence, (along the subsequence) $f(x_n)to y =f(x_0)$, in contradiction to $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.
Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:30
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up vote
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This is true. Given $[a,b] subset mathbbR$, $mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is compact (since it is a closed set inside a compact one). It follows that $pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is a homeomorphism with its image, and hence $f|_[a,b]=pi_2 circ (pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR))^-1$ is continuous. Therefore $f|_(a,b)$ is continuous. Since this holds for arbitrary $(a,b) subset mathbbR$, $f$ is continuous in the whole real line.
Note that this generalizes to the following statement:
Let $X$ be locally compact and Hausdorff, and $Y$ be compact. If $f:X to Y$ is a function such that $mathrmGr(f)$ is closed, then $f$ is continuous.
Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:31
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Suppose $f$ is not continuous at some $x_0$. Then there is a sequence $(x_n)$ with $x_n to x_0$, but $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.
Switching to a subsequence, we can assume $f(x_n)to y in overlinemathbbR$, since $overlinemathbbR$ is sequentially compact. Since th graph of $f$ is closed, this means $(x_0,y)in mathrmgraph f$ and hence $y=f(x_0)$. Hence, (along the subsequence) $f(x_n)to y =f(x_0)$, in contradiction to $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.
Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:30
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Suppose $f$ is not continuous at some $x_0$. Then there is a sequence $(x_n)$ with $x_n to x_0$, but $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.
Switching to a subsequence, we can assume $f(x_n)to y in overlinemathbbR$, since $overlinemathbbR$ is sequentially compact. Since th graph of $f$ is closed, this means $(x_0,y)in mathrmgraph f$ and hence $y=f(x_0)$. Hence, (along the subsequence) $f(x_n)to y =f(x_0)$, in contradiction to $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.
Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:30
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Suppose $f$ is not continuous at some $x_0$. Then there is a sequence $(x_n)$ with $x_n to x_0$, but $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.
Switching to a subsequence, we can assume $f(x_n)to y in overlinemathbbR$, since $overlinemathbbR$ is sequentially compact. Since th graph of $f$ is closed, this means $(x_0,y)in mathrmgraph f$ and hence $y=f(x_0)$. Hence, (along the subsequence) $f(x_n)to y =f(x_0)$, in contradiction to $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.
Suppose $f$ is not continuous at some $x_0$. Then there is a sequence $(x_n)$ with $x_n to x_0$, but $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.
Switching to a subsequence, we can assume $f(x_n)to y in overlinemathbbR$, since $overlinemathbbR$ is sequentially compact. Since th graph of $f$ is closed, this means $(x_0,y)in mathrmgraph f$ and hence $y=f(x_0)$. Hence, (along the subsequence) $f(x_n)to y =f(x_0)$, in contradiction to $|f(x_n) - f(x_0)|geq epsilon >0$ for all $n$.
answered Jul 30 at 15:51


PhoemueX
26.4k22353
26.4k22353
Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:30
add a comment |Â
Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:30
Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:30
Thank you! I should have remembered that the extended reals were compact. 😀
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:30
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
This is true. Given $[a,b] subset mathbbR$, $mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is compact (since it is a closed set inside a compact one). It follows that $pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is a homeomorphism with its image, and hence $f|_[a,b]=pi_2 circ (pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR))^-1$ is continuous. Therefore $f|_(a,b)$ is continuous. Since this holds for arbitrary $(a,b) subset mathbbR$, $f$ is continuous in the whole real line.
Note that this generalizes to the following statement:
Let $X$ be locally compact and Hausdorff, and $Y$ be compact. If $f:X to Y$ is a function such that $mathrmGr(f)$ is closed, then $f$ is continuous.
Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:31
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
This is true. Given $[a,b] subset mathbbR$, $mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is compact (since it is a closed set inside a compact one). It follows that $pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is a homeomorphism with its image, and hence $f|_[a,b]=pi_2 circ (pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR))^-1$ is continuous. Therefore $f|_(a,b)$ is continuous. Since this holds for arbitrary $(a,b) subset mathbbR$, $f$ is continuous in the whole real line.
Note that this generalizes to the following statement:
Let $X$ be locally compact and Hausdorff, and $Y$ be compact. If $f:X to Y$ is a function such that $mathrmGr(f)$ is closed, then $f$ is continuous.
Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:31
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
This is true. Given $[a,b] subset mathbbR$, $mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is compact (since it is a closed set inside a compact one). It follows that $pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is a homeomorphism with its image, and hence $f|_[a,b]=pi_2 circ (pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR))^-1$ is continuous. Therefore $f|_(a,b)$ is continuous. Since this holds for arbitrary $(a,b) subset mathbbR$, $f$ is continuous in the whole real line.
Note that this generalizes to the following statement:
Let $X$ be locally compact and Hausdorff, and $Y$ be compact. If $f:X to Y$ is a function such that $mathrmGr(f)$ is closed, then $f$ is continuous.
This is true. Given $[a,b] subset mathbbR$, $mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is compact (since it is a closed set inside a compact one). It follows that $pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR)$ is a homeomorphism with its image, and hence $f|_[a,b]=pi_2 circ (pi_1 |_mathrmGr(f) cap ([a,b] times overlinemathbbR))^-1$ is continuous. Therefore $f|_(a,b)$ is continuous. Since this holds for arbitrary $(a,b) subset mathbbR$, $f$ is continuous in the whole real line.
Note that this generalizes to the following statement:
Let $X$ be locally compact and Hausdorff, and $Y$ be compact. If $f:X to Y$ is a function such that $mathrmGr(f)$ is closed, then $f$ is continuous.
edited Jul 30 at 16:56
answered Jul 30 at 16:50
Aloizio Macedo
22.5k23283
22.5k23283
Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:31
add a comment |Â
Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:31
Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:31
Thank you! I accepted the other answer as I found it a bit easier to follow, but I do like how the result generalises. 🙂
– Andrew
Jul 30 at 18:31
add a comment |Â
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The closest related statement (sans compactness) that is actually true (and I can think of) is that a function is Borel if and only if its graph is analytic.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:17
1
Well, unless you assume algebraic regularity or something. I've heard of automatic continuity theorems that could give you something like that (but I don't remember the details). See also various closed graph theorems.
– tomasz
Jul 30 at 15:19