The relation between commutator series and the center

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Let $G$ be a group and $R$ be a maximal solvable subgroup in $G$. Consider the commutator series $R^(n)=[R^(n-1),R^(n-1)]$. Assume that $R^(k)$ intersects the center $Z$ of $G$ in a non-trivial subgroup. Now since the last non-trivial term of the series is abelain, does that mean it equals the center $Z$?







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  • Perhaps I have misunderstood the question, but I believe the answer is "no", as your suggestion that some $R^(k)$ intersects the centre of $G$ seems to be incorrect. For instance, take $G$ to be solvable with trivial centre (e.g., a dihedral group of order $10$). Then $R=G$, and no term of the derived series meets the trivial centre in a non-trivial subgroup.
    – James
    Jul 18 at 6:27






  • 2




    @James I would guess that rather than "We know that" he actually means "Assume that". I am also wondering whether we are supposed to assume that $G$ itself if not solvable. But the answer to the question is no however you interpret it. The last nontrivial term in the series could be a proper subgroup of $Z$.
    – Derek Holt
    Jul 18 at 7:36










  • Sorry I actually meant that what Derek said. Assume that!
    – Ronald
    Jul 18 at 7:47














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $G$ be a group and $R$ be a maximal solvable subgroup in $G$. Consider the commutator series $R^(n)=[R^(n-1),R^(n-1)]$. Assume that $R^(k)$ intersects the center $Z$ of $G$ in a non-trivial subgroup. Now since the last non-trivial term of the series is abelain, does that mean it equals the center $Z$?







share|cite|improve this question





















  • Perhaps I have misunderstood the question, but I believe the answer is "no", as your suggestion that some $R^(k)$ intersects the centre of $G$ seems to be incorrect. For instance, take $G$ to be solvable with trivial centre (e.g., a dihedral group of order $10$). Then $R=G$, and no term of the derived series meets the trivial centre in a non-trivial subgroup.
    – James
    Jul 18 at 6:27






  • 2




    @James I would guess that rather than "We know that" he actually means "Assume that". I am also wondering whether we are supposed to assume that $G$ itself if not solvable. But the answer to the question is no however you interpret it. The last nontrivial term in the series could be a proper subgroup of $Z$.
    – Derek Holt
    Jul 18 at 7:36










  • Sorry I actually meant that what Derek said. Assume that!
    – Ronald
    Jul 18 at 7:47












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $G$ be a group and $R$ be a maximal solvable subgroup in $G$. Consider the commutator series $R^(n)=[R^(n-1),R^(n-1)]$. Assume that $R^(k)$ intersects the center $Z$ of $G$ in a non-trivial subgroup. Now since the last non-trivial term of the series is abelain, does that mean it equals the center $Z$?







share|cite|improve this question













Let $G$ be a group and $R$ be a maximal solvable subgroup in $G$. Consider the commutator series $R^(n)=[R^(n-1),R^(n-1)]$. Assume that $R^(k)$ intersects the center $Z$ of $G$ in a non-trivial subgroup. Now since the last non-trivial term of the series is abelain, does that mean it equals the center $Z$?









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 18 at 7:47
























asked Jul 18 at 3:57









Ronald

1,5391821




1,5391821











  • Perhaps I have misunderstood the question, but I believe the answer is "no", as your suggestion that some $R^(k)$ intersects the centre of $G$ seems to be incorrect. For instance, take $G$ to be solvable with trivial centre (e.g., a dihedral group of order $10$). Then $R=G$, and no term of the derived series meets the trivial centre in a non-trivial subgroup.
    – James
    Jul 18 at 6:27






  • 2




    @James I would guess that rather than "We know that" he actually means "Assume that". I am also wondering whether we are supposed to assume that $G$ itself if not solvable. But the answer to the question is no however you interpret it. The last nontrivial term in the series could be a proper subgroup of $Z$.
    – Derek Holt
    Jul 18 at 7:36










  • Sorry I actually meant that what Derek said. Assume that!
    – Ronald
    Jul 18 at 7:47
















  • Perhaps I have misunderstood the question, but I believe the answer is "no", as your suggestion that some $R^(k)$ intersects the centre of $G$ seems to be incorrect. For instance, take $G$ to be solvable with trivial centre (e.g., a dihedral group of order $10$). Then $R=G$, and no term of the derived series meets the trivial centre in a non-trivial subgroup.
    – James
    Jul 18 at 6:27






  • 2




    @James I would guess that rather than "We know that" he actually means "Assume that". I am also wondering whether we are supposed to assume that $G$ itself if not solvable. But the answer to the question is no however you interpret it. The last nontrivial term in the series could be a proper subgroup of $Z$.
    – Derek Holt
    Jul 18 at 7:36










  • Sorry I actually meant that what Derek said. Assume that!
    – Ronald
    Jul 18 at 7:47















Perhaps I have misunderstood the question, but I believe the answer is "no", as your suggestion that some $R^(k)$ intersects the centre of $G$ seems to be incorrect. For instance, take $G$ to be solvable with trivial centre (e.g., a dihedral group of order $10$). Then $R=G$, and no term of the derived series meets the trivial centre in a non-trivial subgroup.
– James
Jul 18 at 6:27




Perhaps I have misunderstood the question, but I believe the answer is "no", as your suggestion that some $R^(k)$ intersects the centre of $G$ seems to be incorrect. For instance, take $G$ to be solvable with trivial centre (e.g., a dihedral group of order $10$). Then $R=G$, and no term of the derived series meets the trivial centre in a non-trivial subgroup.
– James
Jul 18 at 6:27




2




2




@James I would guess that rather than "We know that" he actually means "Assume that". I am also wondering whether we are supposed to assume that $G$ itself if not solvable. But the answer to the question is no however you interpret it. The last nontrivial term in the series could be a proper subgroup of $Z$.
– Derek Holt
Jul 18 at 7:36




@James I would guess that rather than "We know that" he actually means "Assume that". I am also wondering whether we are supposed to assume that $G$ itself if not solvable. But the answer to the question is no however you interpret it. The last nontrivial term in the series could be a proper subgroup of $Z$.
– Derek Holt
Jul 18 at 7:36












Sorry I actually meant that what Derek said. Assume that!
– Ronald
Jul 18 at 7:47




Sorry I actually meant that what Derek said. Assume that!
– Ronald
Jul 18 at 7:47










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If we take $G = R = C_2 times S_3$, then $R^(0)$ intersects $Z(G)$ non-trivially, but $R^(1) = (0, (123))$ which is abelian but not central.






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    (tbh, I'm a bit worried I've misunderstood the question, since I can't see any reason to believe the question to be true if I have not misunderstood it)
    – Christopher
    Jul 18 at 12:35










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










If we take $G = R = C_2 times S_3$, then $R^(0)$ intersects $Z(G)$ non-trivially, but $R^(1) = (0, (123))$ which is abelian but not central.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    (tbh, I'm a bit worried I've misunderstood the question, since I can't see any reason to believe the question to be true if I have not misunderstood it)
    – Christopher
    Jul 18 at 12:35














up vote
2
down vote



accepted










If we take $G = R = C_2 times S_3$, then $R^(0)$ intersects $Z(G)$ non-trivially, but $R^(1) = (0, (123))$ which is abelian but not central.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    (tbh, I'm a bit worried I've misunderstood the question, since I can't see any reason to believe the question to be true if I have not misunderstood it)
    – Christopher
    Jul 18 at 12:35












up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






If we take $G = R = C_2 times S_3$, then $R^(0)$ intersects $Z(G)$ non-trivially, but $R^(1) = (0, (123))$ which is abelian but not central.






share|cite|improve this answer













If we take $G = R = C_2 times S_3$, then $R^(0)$ intersects $Z(G)$ non-trivially, but $R^(1) = (0, (123))$ which is abelian but not central.







share|cite|improve this answer













share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer











answered Jul 18 at 12:34









Christopher

4,8251224




4,8251224







  • 1




    (tbh, I'm a bit worried I've misunderstood the question, since I can't see any reason to believe the question to be true if I have not misunderstood it)
    – Christopher
    Jul 18 at 12:35












  • 1




    (tbh, I'm a bit worried I've misunderstood the question, since I can't see any reason to believe the question to be true if I have not misunderstood it)
    – Christopher
    Jul 18 at 12:35







1




1




(tbh, I'm a bit worried I've misunderstood the question, since I can't see any reason to believe the question to be true if I have not misunderstood it)
– Christopher
Jul 18 at 12:35




(tbh, I'm a bit worried I've misunderstood the question, since I can't see any reason to believe the question to be true if I have not misunderstood it)
– Christopher
Jul 18 at 12:35












 

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