Uniform continuity of $cos(x^2)$

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I'm trying to figure out if the function $f(x)=cos(x^2)$ is uniformly continuous in $mathbbR^2$. Looking at it's graph It doesn't look like it is, as its graph oscillates more and more violently between $-1$ and $1$ as $xrightarrow infty$.



However I've failed to give an $epsilon-delta$ proof of this. I've also tried to pick two sequences $x_n,y_n$ such that $x_n-y_n rightarrow 0$ but $f(x_n)-f(y_n) notrightarrow 0$.







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  • 4




    What if you take $x_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its maximum 1 and $y_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its minimum $-1$?
    – Daniel Schepler
    Jul 30 at 18:44










  • @DanielSchepler then $f(x_n)-f(y_n) rightarrow 2 neq 0$. But how can we give them? The only sequences I can think of would be $sqrt2pi n$ and $sqrt2pi n + pi$ , but its difference does not converge to zero.
    – Yagger
    Jul 30 at 19:02










  • Why not? Hint: $x_n - y_n = fracx_n^2 - y_n^2x_n + y_n$.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Jul 30 at 19:04











  • @DanielSchepler Got it! Thanks for the help
    – Yagger
    Jul 30 at 20:26














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I'm trying to figure out if the function $f(x)=cos(x^2)$ is uniformly continuous in $mathbbR^2$. Looking at it's graph It doesn't look like it is, as its graph oscillates more and more violently between $-1$ and $1$ as $xrightarrow infty$.



However I've failed to give an $epsilon-delta$ proof of this. I've also tried to pick two sequences $x_n,y_n$ such that $x_n-y_n rightarrow 0$ but $f(x_n)-f(y_n) notrightarrow 0$.







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 4




    What if you take $x_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its maximum 1 and $y_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its minimum $-1$?
    – Daniel Schepler
    Jul 30 at 18:44










  • @DanielSchepler then $f(x_n)-f(y_n) rightarrow 2 neq 0$. But how can we give them? The only sequences I can think of would be $sqrt2pi n$ and $sqrt2pi n + pi$ , but its difference does not converge to zero.
    – Yagger
    Jul 30 at 19:02










  • Why not? Hint: $x_n - y_n = fracx_n^2 - y_n^2x_n + y_n$.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Jul 30 at 19:04











  • @DanielSchepler Got it! Thanks for the help
    – Yagger
    Jul 30 at 20:26












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I'm trying to figure out if the function $f(x)=cos(x^2)$ is uniformly continuous in $mathbbR^2$. Looking at it's graph It doesn't look like it is, as its graph oscillates more and more violently between $-1$ and $1$ as $xrightarrow infty$.



However I've failed to give an $epsilon-delta$ proof of this. I've also tried to pick two sequences $x_n,y_n$ such that $x_n-y_n rightarrow 0$ but $f(x_n)-f(y_n) notrightarrow 0$.







share|cite|improve this question













I'm trying to figure out if the function $f(x)=cos(x^2)$ is uniformly continuous in $mathbbR^2$. Looking at it's graph It doesn't look like it is, as its graph oscillates more and more violently between $-1$ and $1$ as $xrightarrow infty$.



However I've failed to give an $epsilon-delta$ proof of this. I've also tried to pick two sequences $x_n,y_n$ such that $x_n-y_n rightarrow 0$ but $f(x_n)-f(y_n) notrightarrow 0$.









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edited Jul 30 at 18:45









Bernard

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asked Jul 30 at 18:40









Yagger

5101315




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  • 4




    What if you take $x_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its maximum 1 and $y_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its minimum $-1$?
    – Daniel Schepler
    Jul 30 at 18:44










  • @DanielSchepler then $f(x_n)-f(y_n) rightarrow 2 neq 0$. But how can we give them? The only sequences I can think of would be $sqrt2pi n$ and $sqrt2pi n + pi$ , but its difference does not converge to zero.
    – Yagger
    Jul 30 at 19:02










  • Why not? Hint: $x_n - y_n = fracx_n^2 - y_n^2x_n + y_n$.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Jul 30 at 19:04











  • @DanielSchepler Got it! Thanks for the help
    – Yagger
    Jul 30 at 20:26












  • 4




    What if you take $x_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its maximum 1 and $y_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its minimum $-1$?
    – Daniel Schepler
    Jul 30 at 18:44










  • @DanielSchepler then $f(x_n)-f(y_n) rightarrow 2 neq 0$. But how can we give them? The only sequences I can think of would be $sqrt2pi n$ and $sqrt2pi n + pi$ , but its difference does not converge to zero.
    – Yagger
    Jul 30 at 19:02










  • Why not? Hint: $x_n - y_n = fracx_n^2 - y_n^2x_n + y_n$.
    – Daniel Schepler
    Jul 30 at 19:04











  • @DanielSchepler Got it! Thanks for the help
    – Yagger
    Jul 30 at 20:26







4




4




What if you take $x_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its maximum 1 and $y_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its minimum $-1$?
– Daniel Schepler
Jul 30 at 18:44




What if you take $x_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its maximum 1 and $y_n$ to be the points where $f$ takes its minimum $-1$?
– Daniel Schepler
Jul 30 at 18:44












@DanielSchepler then $f(x_n)-f(y_n) rightarrow 2 neq 0$. But how can we give them? The only sequences I can think of would be $sqrt2pi n$ and $sqrt2pi n + pi$ , but its difference does not converge to zero.
– Yagger
Jul 30 at 19:02




@DanielSchepler then $f(x_n)-f(y_n) rightarrow 2 neq 0$. But how can we give them? The only sequences I can think of would be $sqrt2pi n$ and $sqrt2pi n + pi$ , but its difference does not converge to zero.
– Yagger
Jul 30 at 19:02












Why not? Hint: $x_n - y_n = fracx_n^2 - y_n^2x_n + y_n$.
– Daniel Schepler
Jul 30 at 19:04





Why not? Hint: $x_n - y_n = fracx_n^2 - y_n^2x_n + y_n$.
– Daniel Schepler
Jul 30 at 19:04













@DanielSchepler Got it! Thanks for the help
– Yagger
Jul 30 at 20:26




@DanielSchepler Got it! Thanks for the help
– Yagger
Jul 30 at 20:26










2 Answers
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Try this out. Let $x=sqrt2kpi$. We show that if $$|cos(x^2)-cos((x+delta)^2)|<epsilon$$for some $epsilon>0$ therefore we can make $delta$ arbitrarily small by taking $x$ sufficiently large. We have $$|cos(x^2)-cos((x+delta)^2)|=|1-cos(2xdelta+delta^2)|=2sin^2(xdelta+dfracdelta^22)<epsilon$$which means that $$-sqrtdfracepsilon2<sin(xdelta+dfracdelta^22)<sqrtdfracepsilon2$$or $$-2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2<2xdelta+delta^2<2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$by adding up $x^2$ to the sides of the inequality we have$$x^2-2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2<x^2+2xdelta+delta^2<x^2+2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$which by rearranging means that $$delta<dfrac2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2x+sqrtx^2+2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$(the other bound is negative and not considered). So we can make $delta$ arbitrarily small by taking $x$ sufficiently large.






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    up vote
    -1
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    Hint: the derivative is continuous and its absolute value is not bounded from above.






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 3




      I'm not sure if that's sufficient to disprove absolute continuity? For example, what if you had a function where over each interval of $pi$, you come closer and closer to $sqrt$ but replace the singularities at $npi$ with a smaller and smaller $C^1$ spline?
      – Daniel Schepler
      Jul 30 at 18:56










    • The question is about uniform continuity, but your comment is correct nevertheless. However, I did not say it is enough in general, and I did not think it was. But it helps finding the candidate points. If $x_i- y_i$ tends to zero and the difference $|f(x_i)-f(y_i)|$ must stay above a fixed value $varepsilon$, then the fraction $|fracf(x_i)-f(y_i)x_i-y_i|$ tends to infiity, so $|f'(z_i)|$ must tend to infinity for some sequence $z_i$ with $y_ileq z_ileq x_i$.
      – A. Pongrácz
      Jul 30 at 19:05










    • Are you saying hints are not allowed? I wanted to point the author to the right direction, rather than spoonfeed them the answer. There was neither any criticism, nor any need for clarification.
      – A. Pongrácz
      Jul 30 at 19:51










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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    Try this out. Let $x=sqrt2kpi$. We show that if $$|cos(x^2)-cos((x+delta)^2)|<epsilon$$for some $epsilon>0$ therefore we can make $delta$ arbitrarily small by taking $x$ sufficiently large. We have $$|cos(x^2)-cos((x+delta)^2)|=|1-cos(2xdelta+delta^2)|=2sin^2(xdelta+dfracdelta^22)<epsilon$$which means that $$-sqrtdfracepsilon2<sin(xdelta+dfracdelta^22)<sqrtdfracepsilon2$$or $$-2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2<2xdelta+delta^2<2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$by adding up $x^2$ to the sides of the inequality we have$$x^2-2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2<x^2+2xdelta+delta^2<x^2+2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$which by rearranging means that $$delta<dfrac2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2x+sqrtx^2+2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$(the other bound is negative and not considered). So we can make $delta$ arbitrarily small by taking $x$ sufficiently large.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Try this out. Let $x=sqrt2kpi$. We show that if $$|cos(x^2)-cos((x+delta)^2)|<epsilon$$for some $epsilon>0$ therefore we can make $delta$ arbitrarily small by taking $x$ sufficiently large. We have $$|cos(x^2)-cos((x+delta)^2)|=|1-cos(2xdelta+delta^2)|=2sin^2(xdelta+dfracdelta^22)<epsilon$$which means that $$-sqrtdfracepsilon2<sin(xdelta+dfracdelta^22)<sqrtdfracepsilon2$$or $$-2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2<2xdelta+delta^2<2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$by adding up $x^2$ to the sides of the inequality we have$$x^2-2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2<x^2+2xdelta+delta^2<x^2+2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$which by rearranging means that $$delta<dfrac2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2x+sqrtx^2+2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$(the other bound is negative and not considered). So we can make $delta$ arbitrarily small by taking $x$ sufficiently large.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        Try this out. Let $x=sqrt2kpi$. We show that if $$|cos(x^2)-cos((x+delta)^2)|<epsilon$$for some $epsilon>0$ therefore we can make $delta$ arbitrarily small by taking $x$ sufficiently large. We have $$|cos(x^2)-cos((x+delta)^2)|=|1-cos(2xdelta+delta^2)|=2sin^2(xdelta+dfracdelta^22)<epsilon$$which means that $$-sqrtdfracepsilon2<sin(xdelta+dfracdelta^22)<sqrtdfracepsilon2$$or $$-2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2<2xdelta+delta^2<2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$by adding up $x^2$ to the sides of the inequality we have$$x^2-2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2<x^2+2xdelta+delta^2<x^2+2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$which by rearranging means that $$delta<dfrac2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2x+sqrtx^2+2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$(the other bound is negative and not considered). So we can make $delta$ arbitrarily small by taking $x$ sufficiently large.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        Try this out. Let $x=sqrt2kpi$. We show that if $$|cos(x^2)-cos((x+delta)^2)|<epsilon$$for some $epsilon>0$ therefore we can make $delta$ arbitrarily small by taking $x$ sufficiently large. We have $$|cos(x^2)-cos((x+delta)^2)|=|1-cos(2xdelta+delta^2)|=2sin^2(xdelta+dfracdelta^22)<epsilon$$which means that $$-sqrtdfracepsilon2<sin(xdelta+dfracdelta^22)<sqrtdfracepsilon2$$or $$-2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2<2xdelta+delta^2<2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$by adding up $x^2$ to the sides of the inequality we have$$x^2-2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2<x^2+2xdelta+delta^2<x^2+2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$which by rearranging means that $$delta<dfrac2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2x+sqrtx^2+2sin^-1sqrtdfracepsilon2$$(the other bound is negative and not considered). So we can make $delta$ arbitrarily small by taking $x$ sufficiently large.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Jul 30 at 19:21









        Mostafa Ayaz

        8,4623630




        8,4623630




















            up vote
            -1
            down vote













            Hint: the derivative is continuous and its absolute value is not bounded from above.






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 3




              I'm not sure if that's sufficient to disprove absolute continuity? For example, what if you had a function where over each interval of $pi$, you come closer and closer to $sqrt$ but replace the singularities at $npi$ with a smaller and smaller $C^1$ spline?
              – Daniel Schepler
              Jul 30 at 18:56










            • The question is about uniform continuity, but your comment is correct nevertheless. However, I did not say it is enough in general, and I did not think it was. But it helps finding the candidate points. If $x_i- y_i$ tends to zero and the difference $|f(x_i)-f(y_i)|$ must stay above a fixed value $varepsilon$, then the fraction $|fracf(x_i)-f(y_i)x_i-y_i|$ tends to infiity, so $|f'(z_i)|$ must tend to infinity for some sequence $z_i$ with $y_ileq z_ileq x_i$.
              – A. Pongrácz
              Jul 30 at 19:05










            • Are you saying hints are not allowed? I wanted to point the author to the right direction, rather than spoonfeed them the answer. There was neither any criticism, nor any need for clarification.
              – A. Pongrácz
              Jul 30 at 19:51














            up vote
            -1
            down vote













            Hint: the derivative is continuous and its absolute value is not bounded from above.






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 3




              I'm not sure if that's sufficient to disprove absolute continuity? For example, what if you had a function where over each interval of $pi$, you come closer and closer to $sqrt$ but replace the singularities at $npi$ with a smaller and smaller $C^1$ spline?
              – Daniel Schepler
              Jul 30 at 18:56










            • The question is about uniform continuity, but your comment is correct nevertheless. However, I did not say it is enough in general, and I did not think it was. But it helps finding the candidate points. If $x_i- y_i$ tends to zero and the difference $|f(x_i)-f(y_i)|$ must stay above a fixed value $varepsilon$, then the fraction $|fracf(x_i)-f(y_i)x_i-y_i|$ tends to infiity, so $|f'(z_i)|$ must tend to infinity for some sequence $z_i$ with $y_ileq z_ileq x_i$.
              – A. Pongrácz
              Jul 30 at 19:05










            • Are you saying hints are not allowed? I wanted to point the author to the right direction, rather than spoonfeed them the answer. There was neither any criticism, nor any need for clarification.
              – A. Pongrácz
              Jul 30 at 19:51












            up vote
            -1
            down vote










            up vote
            -1
            down vote









            Hint: the derivative is continuous and its absolute value is not bounded from above.






            share|cite|improve this answer













            Hint: the derivative is continuous and its absolute value is not bounded from above.







            share|cite|improve this answer













            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer











            answered Jul 30 at 18:48









            A. Pongrácz

            1,344115




            1,344115







            • 3




              I'm not sure if that's sufficient to disprove absolute continuity? For example, what if you had a function where over each interval of $pi$, you come closer and closer to $sqrt$ but replace the singularities at $npi$ with a smaller and smaller $C^1$ spline?
              – Daniel Schepler
              Jul 30 at 18:56










            • The question is about uniform continuity, but your comment is correct nevertheless. However, I did not say it is enough in general, and I did not think it was. But it helps finding the candidate points. If $x_i- y_i$ tends to zero and the difference $|f(x_i)-f(y_i)|$ must stay above a fixed value $varepsilon$, then the fraction $|fracf(x_i)-f(y_i)x_i-y_i|$ tends to infiity, so $|f'(z_i)|$ must tend to infinity for some sequence $z_i$ with $y_ileq z_ileq x_i$.
              – A. Pongrácz
              Jul 30 at 19:05










            • Are you saying hints are not allowed? I wanted to point the author to the right direction, rather than spoonfeed them the answer. There was neither any criticism, nor any need for clarification.
              – A. Pongrácz
              Jul 30 at 19:51












            • 3




              I'm not sure if that's sufficient to disprove absolute continuity? For example, what if you had a function where over each interval of $pi$, you come closer and closer to $sqrt$ but replace the singularities at $npi$ with a smaller and smaller $C^1$ spline?
              – Daniel Schepler
              Jul 30 at 18:56










            • The question is about uniform continuity, but your comment is correct nevertheless. However, I did not say it is enough in general, and I did not think it was. But it helps finding the candidate points. If $x_i- y_i$ tends to zero and the difference $|f(x_i)-f(y_i)|$ must stay above a fixed value $varepsilon$, then the fraction $|fracf(x_i)-f(y_i)x_i-y_i|$ tends to infiity, so $|f'(z_i)|$ must tend to infinity for some sequence $z_i$ with $y_ileq z_ileq x_i$.
              – A. Pongrácz
              Jul 30 at 19:05










            • Are you saying hints are not allowed? I wanted to point the author to the right direction, rather than spoonfeed them the answer. There was neither any criticism, nor any need for clarification.
              – A. Pongrácz
              Jul 30 at 19:51







            3




            3




            I'm not sure if that's sufficient to disprove absolute continuity? For example, what if you had a function where over each interval of $pi$, you come closer and closer to $sqrt$ but replace the singularities at $npi$ with a smaller and smaller $C^1$ spline?
            – Daniel Schepler
            Jul 30 at 18:56




            I'm not sure if that's sufficient to disprove absolute continuity? For example, what if you had a function where over each interval of $pi$, you come closer and closer to $sqrt$ but replace the singularities at $npi$ with a smaller and smaller $C^1$ spline?
            – Daniel Schepler
            Jul 30 at 18:56












            The question is about uniform continuity, but your comment is correct nevertheless. However, I did not say it is enough in general, and I did not think it was. But it helps finding the candidate points. If $x_i- y_i$ tends to zero and the difference $|f(x_i)-f(y_i)|$ must stay above a fixed value $varepsilon$, then the fraction $|fracf(x_i)-f(y_i)x_i-y_i|$ tends to infiity, so $|f'(z_i)|$ must tend to infinity for some sequence $z_i$ with $y_ileq z_ileq x_i$.
            – A. Pongrácz
            Jul 30 at 19:05




            The question is about uniform continuity, but your comment is correct nevertheless. However, I did not say it is enough in general, and I did not think it was. But it helps finding the candidate points. If $x_i- y_i$ tends to zero and the difference $|f(x_i)-f(y_i)|$ must stay above a fixed value $varepsilon$, then the fraction $|fracf(x_i)-f(y_i)x_i-y_i|$ tends to infiity, so $|f'(z_i)|$ must tend to infinity for some sequence $z_i$ with $y_ileq z_ileq x_i$.
            – A. Pongrácz
            Jul 30 at 19:05












            Are you saying hints are not allowed? I wanted to point the author to the right direction, rather than spoonfeed them the answer. There was neither any criticism, nor any need for clarification.
            – A. Pongrácz
            Jul 30 at 19:51




            Are you saying hints are not allowed? I wanted to point the author to the right direction, rather than spoonfeed them the answer. There was neither any criticism, nor any need for clarification.
            – A. Pongrácz
            Jul 30 at 19:51












             

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