Variance of a sum of IID random variables.

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Let's say we have a sequence of $n$ IID random variables, $I_i$. Let's define a new random variable which is their sum:



$$S = sum_i I_i$$



To calculate the variance of $S$ we can say -



$$V(S) = sum_i V(I_i) = nV(I_1)$$



Or we can also say that $S$ has the same distribution as $nI_1$



So, we should have $V(S) = V(nI_1) = n^2V(I_1)$.



This is of course, in direct contradiction to what we got above. What am I missing?







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    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite












    Let's say we have a sequence of $n$ IID random variables, $I_i$. Let's define a new random variable which is their sum:



    $$S = sum_i I_i$$



    To calculate the variance of $S$ we can say -



    $$V(S) = sum_i V(I_i) = nV(I_1)$$



    Or we can also say that $S$ has the same distribution as $nI_1$



    So, we should have $V(S) = V(nI_1) = n^2V(I_1)$.



    This is of course, in direct contradiction to what we got above. What am I missing?







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      Let's say we have a sequence of $n$ IID random variables, $I_i$. Let's define a new random variable which is their sum:



      $$S = sum_i I_i$$



      To calculate the variance of $S$ we can say -



      $$V(S) = sum_i V(I_i) = nV(I_1)$$



      Or we can also say that $S$ has the same distribution as $nI_1$



      So, we should have $V(S) = V(nI_1) = n^2V(I_1)$.



      This is of course, in direct contradiction to what we got above. What am I missing?







      share|cite|improve this question











      Let's say we have a sequence of $n$ IID random variables, $I_i$. Let's define a new random variable which is their sum:



      $$S = sum_i I_i$$



      To calculate the variance of $S$ we can say -



      $$V(S) = sum_i V(I_i) = nV(I_1)$$



      Or we can also say that $S$ has the same distribution as $nI_1$



      So, we should have $V(S) = V(nI_1) = n^2V(I_1)$.



      This is of course, in direct contradiction to what we got above. What am I missing?









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




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      asked Jul 17 at 1:04









      Rohit Pandey

      798718




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          3 Answers
          3






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          up vote
          7
          down vote



          accepted










          $S$ does not have the same distribution as $nI_1.$ In fact, you have proven this by showing they have different variances. As an example, if $I_1$ can take the values $0$ and $1$ (i.e. it is a Bernoulli variable), then $2I_1$ can take the values $0$ and $2.$ However $I_1+I_2$ can take the value $0$ (if both are zero), $1$ (if one is zero and the other is one), or $2$ (if both are one).






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            6
            down vote













            You're missing the difference between these two things:
            $$
            beginalign
            & I_1 + I_2+ cdots + I_n, \[8pt] & I_1 + I_1+ cdots + I_1.
            endalign
            $$
            In one of those, the terms are independent; in the other, they're as far from independent as they can get.



            NOTE: These do not both have the same distribution.






            share|cite|improve this answer




























              up vote
              4
              down vote













              We can not say $S$ has the same distribution as $nI_1$.



              Example:



              Toss two coins and count the heads as $I_1,I_2$ and their sum as $S$.   Now $I_1in0,1$, as is $I_2$, and they are iid as required.   So $Sin 0,1,2$ and yet $2I_1in 0,2$.   Thus we see that $S$ and $2I_1$ do not have the same support, therefore they cannot have the same distribution.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes








                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes








                up vote
                7
                down vote



                accepted










                $S$ does not have the same distribution as $nI_1.$ In fact, you have proven this by showing they have different variances. As an example, if $I_1$ can take the values $0$ and $1$ (i.e. it is a Bernoulli variable), then $2I_1$ can take the values $0$ and $2.$ However $I_1+I_2$ can take the value $0$ (if both are zero), $1$ (if one is zero and the other is one), or $2$ (if both are one).






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  7
                  down vote



                  accepted










                  $S$ does not have the same distribution as $nI_1.$ In fact, you have proven this by showing they have different variances. As an example, if $I_1$ can take the values $0$ and $1$ (i.e. it is a Bernoulli variable), then $2I_1$ can take the values $0$ and $2.$ However $I_1+I_2$ can take the value $0$ (if both are zero), $1$ (if one is zero and the other is one), or $2$ (if both are one).






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    7
                    down vote



                    accepted







                    up vote
                    7
                    down vote



                    accepted






                    $S$ does not have the same distribution as $nI_1.$ In fact, you have proven this by showing they have different variances. As an example, if $I_1$ can take the values $0$ and $1$ (i.e. it is a Bernoulli variable), then $2I_1$ can take the values $0$ and $2.$ However $I_1+I_2$ can take the value $0$ (if both are zero), $1$ (if one is zero and the other is one), or $2$ (if both are one).






                    share|cite|improve this answer













                    $S$ does not have the same distribution as $nI_1.$ In fact, you have proven this by showing they have different variances. As an example, if $I_1$ can take the values $0$ and $1$ (i.e. it is a Bernoulli variable), then $2I_1$ can take the values $0$ and $2.$ However $I_1+I_2$ can take the value $0$ (if both are zero), $1$ (if one is zero and the other is one), or $2$ (if both are one).







                    share|cite|improve this answer













                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    answered Jul 17 at 1:19









                    spaceisdarkgreen

                    27.6k21547




                    27.6k21547




















                        up vote
                        6
                        down vote













                        You're missing the difference between these two things:
                        $$
                        beginalign
                        & I_1 + I_2+ cdots + I_n, \[8pt] & I_1 + I_1+ cdots + I_1.
                        endalign
                        $$
                        In one of those, the terms are independent; in the other, they're as far from independent as they can get.



                        NOTE: These do not both have the same distribution.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          6
                          down vote













                          You're missing the difference between these two things:
                          $$
                          beginalign
                          & I_1 + I_2+ cdots + I_n, \[8pt] & I_1 + I_1+ cdots + I_1.
                          endalign
                          $$
                          In one of those, the terms are independent; in the other, they're as far from independent as they can get.



                          NOTE: These do not both have the same distribution.






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            6
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            6
                            down vote









                            You're missing the difference between these two things:
                            $$
                            beginalign
                            & I_1 + I_2+ cdots + I_n, \[8pt] & I_1 + I_1+ cdots + I_1.
                            endalign
                            $$
                            In one of those, the terms are independent; in the other, they're as far from independent as they can get.



                            NOTE: These do not both have the same distribution.






                            share|cite|improve this answer













                            You're missing the difference between these two things:
                            $$
                            beginalign
                            & I_1 + I_2+ cdots + I_n, \[8pt] & I_1 + I_1+ cdots + I_1.
                            endalign
                            $$
                            In one of those, the terms are independent; in the other, they're as far from independent as they can get.



                            NOTE: These do not both have the same distribution.







                            share|cite|improve this answer













                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            answered Jul 17 at 3:51









                            Michael Hardy

                            204k23186462




                            204k23186462




















                                up vote
                                4
                                down vote













                                We can not say $S$ has the same distribution as $nI_1$.



                                Example:



                                Toss two coins and count the heads as $I_1,I_2$ and their sum as $S$.   Now $I_1in0,1$, as is $I_2$, and they are iid as required.   So $Sin 0,1,2$ and yet $2I_1in 0,2$.   Thus we see that $S$ and $2I_1$ do not have the same support, therefore they cannot have the same distribution.






                                share|cite|improve this answer

























                                  up vote
                                  4
                                  down vote













                                  We can not say $S$ has the same distribution as $nI_1$.



                                  Example:



                                  Toss two coins and count the heads as $I_1,I_2$ and their sum as $S$.   Now $I_1in0,1$, as is $I_2$, and they are iid as required.   So $Sin 0,1,2$ and yet $2I_1in 0,2$.   Thus we see that $S$ and $2I_1$ do not have the same support, therefore they cannot have the same distribution.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer























                                    up vote
                                    4
                                    down vote










                                    up vote
                                    4
                                    down vote









                                    We can not say $S$ has the same distribution as $nI_1$.



                                    Example:



                                    Toss two coins and count the heads as $I_1,I_2$ and their sum as $S$.   Now $I_1in0,1$, as is $I_2$, and they are iid as required.   So $Sin 0,1,2$ and yet $2I_1in 0,2$.   Thus we see that $S$ and $2I_1$ do not have the same support, therefore they cannot have the same distribution.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer













                                    We can not say $S$ has the same distribution as $nI_1$.



                                    Example:



                                    Toss two coins and count the heads as $I_1,I_2$ and their sum as $S$.   Now $I_1in0,1$, as is $I_2$, and they are iid as required.   So $Sin 0,1,2$ and yet $2I_1in 0,2$.   Thus we see that $S$ and $2I_1$ do not have the same support, therefore they cannot have the same distribution.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer













                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    answered Jul 17 at 1:28









                                    Graham Kemp

                                    80.1k43275




                                    80.1k43275






















                                         

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