What is the predual of $L^1$

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
12
down vote

favorite
9












Is there a nice characterization of the predual of $L^1$? So, what does the space $X$ look like, such that $X^*=L^1$, where the star denotes the dual of a Banach space. How do you start to find such preduals in general?



For some context, it is well known that given a measure space $(S, Sigma, mu)$, $L^p := L^p(S, mu)$ is a Banach space for $pin (1,infty)$ and that $L^p cong (L^q)^*$ where $q$ is the Holder conjugate of $p$, that is $frac 1p + frac 1q =1$. It is also known that $L^1$ is the predual of $L^infty$. This leaves the above questions as the only remaining case.



When $S$ is (for example) finite of course the question is moot. If you like one can consider only very simple measure space, like $[0,1]$ with the Lebesgue measure.







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 4




    Note also that the question what is "the" predual does not make sense in general. The space $ell^1$ has many non-isomorphic preduals, for example $C(K)$ for $K$ countable and compact.
    – t.b.
    Apr 27 '12 at 18:03










  • @ t.b: Thanks for pointing this out! To be honest, since I didn't know predual of $L^1$ I didn't think there could be various.
    – math
    Apr 28 '12 at 15:50










  • I think $K$ also needs to be Hausdorff no?
    – Christian Bueno
    Mar 9 '15 at 16:21














up vote
12
down vote

favorite
9












Is there a nice characterization of the predual of $L^1$? So, what does the space $X$ look like, such that $X^*=L^1$, where the star denotes the dual of a Banach space. How do you start to find such preduals in general?



For some context, it is well known that given a measure space $(S, Sigma, mu)$, $L^p := L^p(S, mu)$ is a Banach space for $pin (1,infty)$ and that $L^p cong (L^q)^*$ where $q$ is the Holder conjugate of $p$, that is $frac 1p + frac 1q =1$. It is also known that $L^1$ is the predual of $L^infty$. This leaves the above questions as the only remaining case.



When $S$ is (for example) finite of course the question is moot. If you like one can consider only very simple measure space, like $[0,1]$ with the Lebesgue measure.







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 4




    Note also that the question what is "the" predual does not make sense in general. The space $ell^1$ has many non-isomorphic preduals, for example $C(K)$ for $K$ countable and compact.
    – t.b.
    Apr 27 '12 at 18:03










  • @ t.b: Thanks for pointing this out! To be honest, since I didn't know predual of $L^1$ I didn't think there could be various.
    – math
    Apr 28 '12 at 15:50










  • I think $K$ also needs to be Hausdorff no?
    – Christian Bueno
    Mar 9 '15 at 16:21












up vote
12
down vote

favorite
9









up vote
12
down vote

favorite
9






9





Is there a nice characterization of the predual of $L^1$? So, what does the space $X$ look like, such that $X^*=L^1$, where the star denotes the dual of a Banach space. How do you start to find such preduals in general?



For some context, it is well known that given a measure space $(S, Sigma, mu)$, $L^p := L^p(S, mu)$ is a Banach space for $pin (1,infty)$ and that $L^p cong (L^q)^*$ where $q$ is the Holder conjugate of $p$, that is $frac 1p + frac 1q =1$. It is also known that $L^1$ is the predual of $L^infty$. This leaves the above questions as the only remaining case.



When $S$ is (for example) finite of course the question is moot. If you like one can consider only very simple measure space, like $[0,1]$ with the Lebesgue measure.







share|cite|improve this question













Is there a nice characterization of the predual of $L^1$? So, what does the space $X$ look like, such that $X^*=L^1$, where the star denotes the dual of a Banach space. How do you start to find such preduals in general?



For some context, it is well known that given a measure space $(S, Sigma, mu)$, $L^p := L^p(S, mu)$ is a Banach space for $pin (1,infty)$ and that $L^p cong (L^q)^*$ where $q$ is the Holder conjugate of $p$, that is $frac 1p + frac 1q =1$. It is also known that $L^1$ is the predual of $L^infty$. This leaves the above questions as the only remaining case.



When $S$ is (for example) finite of course the question is moot. If you like one can consider only very simple measure space, like $[0,1]$ with the Lebesgue measure.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 31 at 15:58









John Ma

37.5k93669




37.5k93669









asked Apr 27 '12 at 14:54









math

1,39211639




1,39211639







  • 4




    Note also that the question what is "the" predual does not make sense in general. The space $ell^1$ has many non-isomorphic preduals, for example $C(K)$ for $K$ countable and compact.
    – t.b.
    Apr 27 '12 at 18:03










  • @ t.b: Thanks for pointing this out! To be honest, since I didn't know predual of $L^1$ I didn't think there could be various.
    – math
    Apr 28 '12 at 15:50










  • I think $K$ also needs to be Hausdorff no?
    – Christian Bueno
    Mar 9 '15 at 16:21












  • 4




    Note also that the question what is "the" predual does not make sense in general. The space $ell^1$ has many non-isomorphic preduals, for example $C(K)$ for $K$ countable and compact.
    – t.b.
    Apr 27 '12 at 18:03










  • @ t.b: Thanks for pointing this out! To be honest, since I didn't know predual of $L^1$ I didn't think there could be various.
    – math
    Apr 28 '12 at 15:50










  • I think $K$ also needs to be Hausdorff no?
    – Christian Bueno
    Mar 9 '15 at 16:21







4




4




Note also that the question what is "the" predual does not make sense in general. The space $ell^1$ has many non-isomorphic preduals, for example $C(K)$ for $K$ countable and compact.
– t.b.
Apr 27 '12 at 18:03




Note also that the question what is "the" predual does not make sense in general. The space $ell^1$ has many non-isomorphic preduals, for example $C(K)$ for $K$ countable and compact.
– t.b.
Apr 27 '12 at 18:03












@ t.b: Thanks for pointing this out! To be honest, since I didn't know predual of $L^1$ I didn't think there could be various.
– math
Apr 28 '12 at 15:50




@ t.b: Thanks for pointing this out! To be honest, since I didn't know predual of $L^1$ I didn't think there could be various.
– math
Apr 28 '12 at 15:50












I think $K$ also needs to be Hausdorff no?
– Christian Bueno
Mar 9 '15 at 16:21




I think $K$ also needs to be Hausdorff no?
– Christian Bueno
Mar 9 '15 at 16:21










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
15
down vote



accepted










In fact, $L_1[0,1]$ has no pre-dual. More is true: $L_1$ cannot be embedded is a separable dual space. See, e.g., Theorem 6.3.7 in Kalton and Albiac's Topics in in Banach Space Theory.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 4




    @Math: $ell^1=L^1(mathbbN)$ (with counting measure) famously has predual $c_0$, the subspace of $L^infty(mathbbN)$ consisting of sequences converging to $0$.
    – Chris Eagle
    Apr 27 '12 at 15:38






  • 2




    @math I should point out that it is not hard to show that $L_1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space using an extreme point argument and the Krein-Milman Theorem.
    – David Mitra
    Apr 27 '12 at 15:55






  • 2




    @math A result due to Johnson and Zippen: Let $X$ be a separable $L_1(mu)$ predual. Then there is a subspace $Y$ of $C(Delta)$, where $Delta$ is the Cantor set, such that $X$ is isometric to $C(Delta)/Y$. Here is the reference: W.B. Johnson and M. Zippen, Every separable predual of an $L_1$-space is a quotient of $C(Delta)$. Israel J. Math 16 (1973), 198-202. See also here.
    – David Mitra
    Apr 27 '12 at 16:43






  • 6




    David's comment expanded. In a dual space, the unit ball has lots of extreme points (since, in the weak* topology, it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points: Krein-Milman theorem). But the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points at all! This shows $L^1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space. The isomorphic theorem is harder.
    – GEdgar
    Apr 27 '12 at 17:44






  • 2




    @XanderHenderson I've added an answer for the Krein-Milman argument which should answer this question and the duplicate source: I'm afraid the more general argument in this answer is beyond me.
    – B. Mehta
    Jul 30 at 22:33

















up vote
6
down vote














Banach-Alaoglu-Bourbaki: For $X$ a Banach space, the closed unit ball of $X^*$ is weak*-compact.



Krein-Milman: For $X$ a locally convex topological vector space, and $K$ a compact convex subset, $K$ is the closed convex hull of its extreme points.




Suppose $X^* = L^1[0,1]$. By BAB, the closed unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ is weak*-compact. In addition, weak* topologies are always locally convex (see, for instance, here) and $L^1[0,1]$ is clearly convex so Krein-Milman gives that it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points.



But the closed unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points: Suppose $|f|_1 = alpha leq 1$, $f neq 0$. Then $H(s) = int_0^s |f(t)| , dt$ is a continuous function, with $H(0) = 0$ and $H(1) = alpha$. Thus there is some $s_0 in (0,1)$ with $H(s) = fracalpha2$, so set
$$g(t) = 2f chi_[0,s_0] quad h(t) = 2f chi_[s_0,1]$$
which satisfy $|g|_1 = |h|_1 = |f|_1 = alpha$ and $frac12(g + h) = f$, so $f$ is not an extreme point. Clearly $0$ is not an extreme point either, so the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points.



Thus we have a contradiction, and $L^1[0,1]$ has no pre-dual.






share|cite|improve this answer























    Your Answer




    StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
    return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
    StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
    StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
    );
    );
    , "mathjax-editing");

    StackExchange.ready(function()
    var channelOptions =
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "69"
    ;
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
    createEditor();
    );

    else
    createEditor();

    );

    function createEditor()
    StackExchange.prepareEditor(
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    convertImagesToLinks: true,
    noModals: false,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: 10,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    );



    );








     

    draft saved


    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function ()
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f137677%2fwhat-is-the-predual-of-l1%23new-answer', 'question_page');

    );

    Post as a guest






























    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    15
    down vote



    accepted










    In fact, $L_1[0,1]$ has no pre-dual. More is true: $L_1$ cannot be embedded is a separable dual space. See, e.g., Theorem 6.3.7 in Kalton and Albiac's Topics in in Banach Space Theory.






    share|cite|improve this answer



















    • 4




      @Math: $ell^1=L^1(mathbbN)$ (with counting measure) famously has predual $c_0$, the subspace of $L^infty(mathbbN)$ consisting of sequences converging to $0$.
      – Chris Eagle
      Apr 27 '12 at 15:38






    • 2




      @math I should point out that it is not hard to show that $L_1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space using an extreme point argument and the Krein-Milman Theorem.
      – David Mitra
      Apr 27 '12 at 15:55






    • 2




      @math A result due to Johnson and Zippen: Let $X$ be a separable $L_1(mu)$ predual. Then there is a subspace $Y$ of $C(Delta)$, where $Delta$ is the Cantor set, such that $X$ is isometric to $C(Delta)/Y$. Here is the reference: W.B. Johnson and M. Zippen, Every separable predual of an $L_1$-space is a quotient of $C(Delta)$. Israel J. Math 16 (1973), 198-202. See also here.
      – David Mitra
      Apr 27 '12 at 16:43






    • 6




      David's comment expanded. In a dual space, the unit ball has lots of extreme points (since, in the weak* topology, it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points: Krein-Milman theorem). But the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points at all! This shows $L^1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space. The isomorphic theorem is harder.
      – GEdgar
      Apr 27 '12 at 17:44






    • 2




      @XanderHenderson I've added an answer for the Krein-Milman argument which should answer this question and the duplicate source: I'm afraid the more general argument in this answer is beyond me.
      – B. Mehta
      Jul 30 at 22:33














    up vote
    15
    down vote



    accepted










    In fact, $L_1[0,1]$ has no pre-dual. More is true: $L_1$ cannot be embedded is a separable dual space. See, e.g., Theorem 6.3.7 in Kalton and Albiac's Topics in in Banach Space Theory.






    share|cite|improve this answer



















    • 4




      @Math: $ell^1=L^1(mathbbN)$ (with counting measure) famously has predual $c_0$, the subspace of $L^infty(mathbbN)$ consisting of sequences converging to $0$.
      – Chris Eagle
      Apr 27 '12 at 15:38






    • 2




      @math I should point out that it is not hard to show that $L_1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space using an extreme point argument and the Krein-Milman Theorem.
      – David Mitra
      Apr 27 '12 at 15:55






    • 2




      @math A result due to Johnson and Zippen: Let $X$ be a separable $L_1(mu)$ predual. Then there is a subspace $Y$ of $C(Delta)$, where $Delta$ is the Cantor set, such that $X$ is isometric to $C(Delta)/Y$. Here is the reference: W.B. Johnson and M. Zippen, Every separable predual of an $L_1$-space is a quotient of $C(Delta)$. Israel J. Math 16 (1973), 198-202. See also here.
      – David Mitra
      Apr 27 '12 at 16:43






    • 6




      David's comment expanded. In a dual space, the unit ball has lots of extreme points (since, in the weak* topology, it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points: Krein-Milman theorem). But the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points at all! This shows $L^1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space. The isomorphic theorem is harder.
      – GEdgar
      Apr 27 '12 at 17:44






    • 2




      @XanderHenderson I've added an answer for the Krein-Milman argument which should answer this question and the duplicate source: I'm afraid the more general argument in this answer is beyond me.
      – B. Mehta
      Jul 30 at 22:33












    up vote
    15
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    15
    down vote



    accepted






    In fact, $L_1[0,1]$ has no pre-dual. More is true: $L_1$ cannot be embedded is a separable dual space. See, e.g., Theorem 6.3.7 in Kalton and Albiac's Topics in in Banach Space Theory.






    share|cite|improve this answer















    In fact, $L_1[0,1]$ has no pre-dual. More is true: $L_1$ cannot be embedded is a separable dual space. See, e.g., Theorem 6.3.7 in Kalton and Albiac's Topics in in Banach Space Theory.







    share|cite|improve this answer















    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Apr 27 '12 at 15:24


























    answered Apr 27 '12 at 15:18









    David Mitra

    61.8k694158




    61.8k694158







    • 4




      @Math: $ell^1=L^1(mathbbN)$ (with counting measure) famously has predual $c_0$, the subspace of $L^infty(mathbbN)$ consisting of sequences converging to $0$.
      – Chris Eagle
      Apr 27 '12 at 15:38






    • 2




      @math I should point out that it is not hard to show that $L_1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space using an extreme point argument and the Krein-Milman Theorem.
      – David Mitra
      Apr 27 '12 at 15:55






    • 2




      @math A result due to Johnson and Zippen: Let $X$ be a separable $L_1(mu)$ predual. Then there is a subspace $Y$ of $C(Delta)$, where $Delta$ is the Cantor set, such that $X$ is isometric to $C(Delta)/Y$. Here is the reference: W.B. Johnson and M. Zippen, Every separable predual of an $L_1$-space is a quotient of $C(Delta)$. Israel J. Math 16 (1973), 198-202. See also here.
      – David Mitra
      Apr 27 '12 at 16:43






    • 6




      David's comment expanded. In a dual space, the unit ball has lots of extreme points (since, in the weak* topology, it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points: Krein-Milman theorem). But the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points at all! This shows $L^1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space. The isomorphic theorem is harder.
      – GEdgar
      Apr 27 '12 at 17:44






    • 2




      @XanderHenderson I've added an answer for the Krein-Milman argument which should answer this question and the duplicate source: I'm afraid the more general argument in this answer is beyond me.
      – B. Mehta
      Jul 30 at 22:33












    • 4




      @Math: $ell^1=L^1(mathbbN)$ (with counting measure) famously has predual $c_0$, the subspace of $L^infty(mathbbN)$ consisting of sequences converging to $0$.
      – Chris Eagle
      Apr 27 '12 at 15:38






    • 2




      @math I should point out that it is not hard to show that $L_1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space using an extreme point argument and the Krein-Milman Theorem.
      – David Mitra
      Apr 27 '12 at 15:55






    • 2




      @math A result due to Johnson and Zippen: Let $X$ be a separable $L_1(mu)$ predual. Then there is a subspace $Y$ of $C(Delta)$, where $Delta$ is the Cantor set, such that $X$ is isometric to $C(Delta)/Y$. Here is the reference: W.B. Johnson and M. Zippen, Every separable predual of an $L_1$-space is a quotient of $C(Delta)$. Israel J. Math 16 (1973), 198-202. See also here.
      – David Mitra
      Apr 27 '12 at 16:43






    • 6




      David's comment expanded. In a dual space, the unit ball has lots of extreme points (since, in the weak* topology, it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points: Krein-Milman theorem). But the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points at all! This shows $L^1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space. The isomorphic theorem is harder.
      – GEdgar
      Apr 27 '12 at 17:44






    • 2




      @XanderHenderson I've added an answer for the Krein-Milman argument which should answer this question and the duplicate source: I'm afraid the more general argument in this answer is beyond me.
      – B. Mehta
      Jul 30 at 22:33







    4




    4




    @Math: $ell^1=L^1(mathbbN)$ (with counting measure) famously has predual $c_0$, the subspace of $L^infty(mathbbN)$ consisting of sequences converging to $0$.
    – Chris Eagle
    Apr 27 '12 at 15:38




    @Math: $ell^1=L^1(mathbbN)$ (with counting measure) famously has predual $c_0$, the subspace of $L^infty(mathbbN)$ consisting of sequences converging to $0$.
    – Chris Eagle
    Apr 27 '12 at 15:38




    2




    2




    @math I should point out that it is not hard to show that $L_1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space using an extreme point argument and the Krein-Milman Theorem.
    – David Mitra
    Apr 27 '12 at 15:55




    @math I should point out that it is not hard to show that $L_1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space using an extreme point argument and the Krein-Milman Theorem.
    – David Mitra
    Apr 27 '12 at 15:55




    2




    2




    @math A result due to Johnson and Zippen: Let $X$ be a separable $L_1(mu)$ predual. Then there is a subspace $Y$ of $C(Delta)$, where $Delta$ is the Cantor set, such that $X$ is isometric to $C(Delta)/Y$. Here is the reference: W.B. Johnson and M. Zippen, Every separable predual of an $L_1$-space is a quotient of $C(Delta)$. Israel J. Math 16 (1973), 198-202. See also here.
    – David Mitra
    Apr 27 '12 at 16:43




    @math A result due to Johnson and Zippen: Let $X$ be a separable $L_1(mu)$ predual. Then there is a subspace $Y$ of $C(Delta)$, where $Delta$ is the Cantor set, such that $X$ is isometric to $C(Delta)/Y$. Here is the reference: W.B. Johnson and M. Zippen, Every separable predual of an $L_1$-space is a quotient of $C(Delta)$. Israel J. Math 16 (1973), 198-202. See also here.
    – David Mitra
    Apr 27 '12 at 16:43




    6




    6




    David's comment expanded. In a dual space, the unit ball has lots of extreme points (since, in the weak* topology, it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points: Krein-Milman theorem). But the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points at all! This shows $L^1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space. The isomorphic theorem is harder.
    – GEdgar
    Apr 27 '12 at 17:44




    David's comment expanded. In a dual space, the unit ball has lots of extreme points (since, in the weak* topology, it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points: Krein-Milman theorem). But the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points at all! This shows $L^1[0,1]$ is not isometric to a dual space. The isomorphic theorem is harder.
    – GEdgar
    Apr 27 '12 at 17:44




    2




    2




    @XanderHenderson I've added an answer for the Krein-Milman argument which should answer this question and the duplicate source: I'm afraid the more general argument in this answer is beyond me.
    – B. Mehta
    Jul 30 at 22:33




    @XanderHenderson I've added an answer for the Krein-Milman argument which should answer this question and the duplicate source: I'm afraid the more general argument in this answer is beyond me.
    – B. Mehta
    Jul 30 at 22:33










    up vote
    6
    down vote














    Banach-Alaoglu-Bourbaki: For $X$ a Banach space, the closed unit ball of $X^*$ is weak*-compact.



    Krein-Milman: For $X$ a locally convex topological vector space, and $K$ a compact convex subset, $K$ is the closed convex hull of its extreme points.




    Suppose $X^* = L^1[0,1]$. By BAB, the closed unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ is weak*-compact. In addition, weak* topologies are always locally convex (see, for instance, here) and $L^1[0,1]$ is clearly convex so Krein-Milman gives that it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points.



    But the closed unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points: Suppose $|f|_1 = alpha leq 1$, $f neq 0$. Then $H(s) = int_0^s |f(t)| , dt$ is a continuous function, with $H(0) = 0$ and $H(1) = alpha$. Thus there is some $s_0 in (0,1)$ with $H(s) = fracalpha2$, so set
    $$g(t) = 2f chi_[0,s_0] quad h(t) = 2f chi_[s_0,1]$$
    which satisfy $|g|_1 = |h|_1 = |f|_1 = alpha$ and $frac12(g + h) = f$, so $f$ is not an extreme point. Clearly $0$ is not an extreme point either, so the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points.



    Thus we have a contradiction, and $L^1[0,1]$ has no pre-dual.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      6
      down vote














      Banach-Alaoglu-Bourbaki: For $X$ a Banach space, the closed unit ball of $X^*$ is weak*-compact.



      Krein-Milman: For $X$ a locally convex topological vector space, and $K$ a compact convex subset, $K$ is the closed convex hull of its extreme points.




      Suppose $X^* = L^1[0,1]$. By BAB, the closed unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ is weak*-compact. In addition, weak* topologies are always locally convex (see, for instance, here) and $L^1[0,1]$ is clearly convex so Krein-Milman gives that it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points.



      But the closed unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points: Suppose $|f|_1 = alpha leq 1$, $f neq 0$. Then $H(s) = int_0^s |f(t)| , dt$ is a continuous function, with $H(0) = 0$ and $H(1) = alpha$. Thus there is some $s_0 in (0,1)$ with $H(s) = fracalpha2$, so set
      $$g(t) = 2f chi_[0,s_0] quad h(t) = 2f chi_[s_0,1]$$
      which satisfy $|g|_1 = |h|_1 = |f|_1 = alpha$ and $frac12(g + h) = f$, so $f$ is not an extreme point. Clearly $0$ is not an extreme point either, so the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points.



      Thus we have a contradiction, and $L^1[0,1]$ has no pre-dual.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        6
        down vote










        up vote
        6
        down vote










        Banach-Alaoglu-Bourbaki: For $X$ a Banach space, the closed unit ball of $X^*$ is weak*-compact.



        Krein-Milman: For $X$ a locally convex topological vector space, and $K$ a compact convex subset, $K$ is the closed convex hull of its extreme points.




        Suppose $X^* = L^1[0,1]$. By BAB, the closed unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ is weak*-compact. In addition, weak* topologies are always locally convex (see, for instance, here) and $L^1[0,1]$ is clearly convex so Krein-Milman gives that it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points.



        But the closed unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points: Suppose $|f|_1 = alpha leq 1$, $f neq 0$. Then $H(s) = int_0^s |f(t)| , dt$ is a continuous function, with $H(0) = 0$ and $H(1) = alpha$. Thus there is some $s_0 in (0,1)$ with $H(s) = fracalpha2$, so set
        $$g(t) = 2f chi_[0,s_0] quad h(t) = 2f chi_[s_0,1]$$
        which satisfy $|g|_1 = |h|_1 = |f|_1 = alpha$ and $frac12(g + h) = f$, so $f$ is not an extreme point. Clearly $0$ is not an extreme point either, so the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points.



        Thus we have a contradiction, and $L^1[0,1]$ has no pre-dual.






        share|cite|improve this answer
















        Banach-Alaoglu-Bourbaki: For $X$ a Banach space, the closed unit ball of $X^*$ is weak*-compact.



        Krein-Milman: For $X$ a locally convex topological vector space, and $K$ a compact convex subset, $K$ is the closed convex hull of its extreme points.




        Suppose $X^* = L^1[0,1]$. By BAB, the closed unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ is weak*-compact. In addition, weak* topologies are always locally convex (see, for instance, here) and $L^1[0,1]$ is clearly convex so Krein-Milman gives that it is the closed convex hull of its extreme points.



        But the closed unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points: Suppose $|f|_1 = alpha leq 1$, $f neq 0$. Then $H(s) = int_0^s |f(t)| , dt$ is a continuous function, with $H(0) = 0$ and $H(1) = alpha$. Thus there is some $s_0 in (0,1)$ with $H(s) = fracalpha2$, so set
        $$g(t) = 2f chi_[0,s_0] quad h(t) = 2f chi_[s_0,1]$$
        which satisfy $|g|_1 = |h|_1 = |f|_1 = alpha$ and $frac12(g + h) = f$, so $f$ is not an extreme point. Clearly $0$ is not an extreme point either, so the unit ball of $L^1[0,1]$ has no extreme points.



        Thus we have a contradiction, and $L^1[0,1]$ has no pre-dual.







        share|cite|improve this answer















        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jul 30 at 22:54


























        answered Jul 30 at 22:31









        B. Mehta

        11.6k21844




        11.6k21844






















             

            draft saved


            draft discarded


























             


            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f137677%2fwhat-is-the-predual-of-l1%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest













































































            Comments

            Popular posts from this blog

            What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

            Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

            Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?