Antiderivative of a Laurent series: how to choose branch cut?

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In the annulus $0<|z-c|<R$, $$f'(z)=sum^infty_k=-inftya_k(z-c)^k$$ where $a_-1ne0$.



Because the series is uniformly convergent within the annulus of convergence, after performing term-by-term indefinite integration, one obtains (for $0<|z-c|<R$):



$$f(z)=K+a_-1log(z-c)+sum^infty_k=-infty,,kne0fraca_k-1k(z-c)^k$$ where $K$ is the constant of integration.



But, how can I determine the branch cut of the logarithm? Is it arbitrary?




My attempt:



In complex analysis, the antiderivative of $f'(z)$ should be written formally as $$f(z)=int f'(z)dz=int_0^1f(gamma(t))gamma'(t)dt$$
where $gamma(t):[0,1]tomathbb Csetminusc$, $gamma(0)=textarbitrary constant L$, $0<|L-c|<R$, $gamma(1)=z$.



If $gamma$ goes around $z=c$ positively, doing the integration would give us one of the possibilities of $f(z)$, call it $f_1(z)$. If $gamma$ goes around $z=c$ negatively, we obtain another function $f_2(z)$, with $f_2(z)=f_1(z)-2pi ia_-1$.



It appears to me that if we walk from $L$, go around $c$ positively once, and go back to $L$, we would get an extra $2pi ia_-1$, thus the branch cut must connect $c$ and $L$.




This argument is quite vague. Moreover, I've seen a theorem that guarantees the region of convergence of an uniformly convergent series would remain unchanged after term-by-term integration. However, in this case, any branch cut would remove continuity of a line of points, and $f(z)$ no longer has the original size of annulus of convergence.



Can you help me to determine the relation between $L$ and the choice of branch cut, and help me to solve the above contradiction?



Thanks in advance.







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    In the annulus $0<|z-c|<R$, $$f'(z)=sum^infty_k=-inftya_k(z-c)^k$$ where $a_-1ne0$.



    Because the series is uniformly convergent within the annulus of convergence, after performing term-by-term indefinite integration, one obtains (for $0<|z-c|<R$):



    $$f(z)=K+a_-1log(z-c)+sum^infty_k=-infty,,kne0fraca_k-1k(z-c)^k$$ where $K$ is the constant of integration.



    But, how can I determine the branch cut of the logarithm? Is it arbitrary?




    My attempt:



    In complex analysis, the antiderivative of $f'(z)$ should be written formally as $$f(z)=int f'(z)dz=int_0^1f(gamma(t))gamma'(t)dt$$
    where $gamma(t):[0,1]tomathbb Csetminusc$, $gamma(0)=textarbitrary constant L$, $0<|L-c|<R$, $gamma(1)=z$.



    If $gamma$ goes around $z=c$ positively, doing the integration would give us one of the possibilities of $f(z)$, call it $f_1(z)$. If $gamma$ goes around $z=c$ negatively, we obtain another function $f_2(z)$, with $f_2(z)=f_1(z)-2pi ia_-1$.



    It appears to me that if we walk from $L$, go around $c$ positively once, and go back to $L$, we would get an extra $2pi ia_-1$, thus the branch cut must connect $c$ and $L$.




    This argument is quite vague. Moreover, I've seen a theorem that guarantees the region of convergence of an uniformly convergent series would remain unchanged after term-by-term integration. However, in this case, any branch cut would remove continuity of a line of points, and $f(z)$ no longer has the original size of annulus of convergence.



    Can you help me to determine the relation between $L$ and the choice of branch cut, and help me to solve the above contradiction?



    Thanks in advance.







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      In the annulus $0<|z-c|<R$, $$f'(z)=sum^infty_k=-inftya_k(z-c)^k$$ where $a_-1ne0$.



      Because the series is uniformly convergent within the annulus of convergence, after performing term-by-term indefinite integration, one obtains (for $0<|z-c|<R$):



      $$f(z)=K+a_-1log(z-c)+sum^infty_k=-infty,,kne0fraca_k-1k(z-c)^k$$ where $K$ is the constant of integration.



      But, how can I determine the branch cut of the logarithm? Is it arbitrary?




      My attempt:



      In complex analysis, the antiderivative of $f'(z)$ should be written formally as $$f(z)=int f'(z)dz=int_0^1f(gamma(t))gamma'(t)dt$$
      where $gamma(t):[0,1]tomathbb Csetminusc$, $gamma(0)=textarbitrary constant L$, $0<|L-c|<R$, $gamma(1)=z$.



      If $gamma$ goes around $z=c$ positively, doing the integration would give us one of the possibilities of $f(z)$, call it $f_1(z)$. If $gamma$ goes around $z=c$ negatively, we obtain another function $f_2(z)$, with $f_2(z)=f_1(z)-2pi ia_-1$.



      It appears to me that if we walk from $L$, go around $c$ positively once, and go back to $L$, we would get an extra $2pi ia_-1$, thus the branch cut must connect $c$ and $L$.




      This argument is quite vague. Moreover, I've seen a theorem that guarantees the region of convergence of an uniformly convergent series would remain unchanged after term-by-term integration. However, in this case, any branch cut would remove continuity of a line of points, and $f(z)$ no longer has the original size of annulus of convergence.



      Can you help me to determine the relation between $L$ and the choice of branch cut, and help me to solve the above contradiction?



      Thanks in advance.







      share|cite|improve this question











      In the annulus $0<|z-c|<R$, $$f'(z)=sum^infty_k=-inftya_k(z-c)^k$$ where $a_-1ne0$.



      Because the series is uniformly convergent within the annulus of convergence, after performing term-by-term indefinite integration, one obtains (for $0<|z-c|<R$):



      $$f(z)=K+a_-1log(z-c)+sum^infty_k=-infty,,kne0fraca_k-1k(z-c)^k$$ where $K$ is the constant of integration.



      But, how can I determine the branch cut of the logarithm? Is it arbitrary?




      My attempt:



      In complex analysis, the antiderivative of $f'(z)$ should be written formally as $$f(z)=int f'(z)dz=int_0^1f(gamma(t))gamma'(t)dt$$
      where $gamma(t):[0,1]tomathbb Csetminusc$, $gamma(0)=textarbitrary constant L$, $0<|L-c|<R$, $gamma(1)=z$.



      If $gamma$ goes around $z=c$ positively, doing the integration would give us one of the possibilities of $f(z)$, call it $f_1(z)$. If $gamma$ goes around $z=c$ negatively, we obtain another function $f_2(z)$, with $f_2(z)=f_1(z)-2pi ia_-1$.



      It appears to me that if we walk from $L$, go around $c$ positively once, and go back to $L$, we would get an extra $2pi ia_-1$, thus the branch cut must connect $c$ and $L$.




      This argument is quite vague. Moreover, I've seen a theorem that guarantees the region of convergence of an uniformly convergent series would remain unchanged after term-by-term integration. However, in this case, any branch cut would remove continuity of a line of points, and $f(z)$ no longer has the original size of annulus of convergence.



      Can you help me to determine the relation between $L$ and the choice of branch cut, and help me to solve the above contradiction?



      Thanks in advance.









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      share|cite|improve this question




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      asked Jul 24 at 3:51









      Szeto

      4,1281521




      4,1281521




















          2 Answers
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          1
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          You can write the derivative of the intended $f$ in the form
          $$f'(z)=a_-1over z-c+sum_kne-1a_kz^k=a_-1over z+g'(z) .$$
          Here $g'$ is the derivative of a bona fide analytic function $g:>Omegatomathbb C$, where $Omega$ is the given annulus. It follows that
          $$f(z)=a_-1 rm ''log(z-c)>rm ''+g(z)+K ,$$
          whereby we now have to make some sense of the $ rm ''log(z-c)>rm ''$ appearing here. After fixing an initial (admissible) value at some point $z_0inOmega$ the $log(z-c)$ picks up an additive constant $2pi i$ with every complete loop around the point $c$. In order to obtain a true analytic function $f$ we have to shrink $Omega$ to a subdomain $Omega'$ that does not contain such loops. How you do this is arbitrary (you could even draw a logarithmic spiral with center $c$). Make the cut that is most practical in the case of your concrete situation. You should be forced to "look over the cut" as little as possible.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Sorry...but what is ‘bona fide’?
            – Szeto
            Jul 24 at 14:01










          • It means: "as advertised", in other words: no additional questions necessary, as with $sin xover x$ at $x=0$.
            – Christian Blatter
            Jul 24 at 18:02

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          The integration $f'(z)$ into $f(z)$ requires a constant. If $F(z)$ is a antiderivative of $f'(z)$ then $f(z) = F(z) + c$, $c in mathbbC$. When integrating complex function this constant is being determined by the branch of the $log$ so if given a $log$ branch (usually given by the value of $f(w)$ for a given $w$) this will determine the value of $c$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























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            2 Answers
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            active

            oldest

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









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            votes






            active

            oldest

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            up vote
            1
            down vote













            You can write the derivative of the intended $f$ in the form
            $$f'(z)=a_-1over z-c+sum_kne-1a_kz^k=a_-1over z+g'(z) .$$
            Here $g'$ is the derivative of a bona fide analytic function $g:>Omegatomathbb C$, where $Omega$ is the given annulus. It follows that
            $$f(z)=a_-1 rm ''log(z-c)>rm ''+g(z)+K ,$$
            whereby we now have to make some sense of the $ rm ''log(z-c)>rm ''$ appearing here. After fixing an initial (admissible) value at some point $z_0inOmega$ the $log(z-c)$ picks up an additive constant $2pi i$ with every complete loop around the point $c$. In order to obtain a true analytic function $f$ we have to shrink $Omega$ to a subdomain $Omega'$ that does not contain such loops. How you do this is arbitrary (you could even draw a logarithmic spiral with center $c$). Make the cut that is most practical in the case of your concrete situation. You should be forced to "look over the cut" as little as possible.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Sorry...but what is ‘bona fide’?
              – Szeto
              Jul 24 at 14:01










            • It means: "as advertised", in other words: no additional questions necessary, as with $sin xover x$ at $x=0$.
              – Christian Blatter
              Jul 24 at 18:02














            up vote
            1
            down vote













            You can write the derivative of the intended $f$ in the form
            $$f'(z)=a_-1over z-c+sum_kne-1a_kz^k=a_-1over z+g'(z) .$$
            Here $g'$ is the derivative of a bona fide analytic function $g:>Omegatomathbb C$, where $Omega$ is the given annulus. It follows that
            $$f(z)=a_-1 rm ''log(z-c)>rm ''+g(z)+K ,$$
            whereby we now have to make some sense of the $ rm ''log(z-c)>rm ''$ appearing here. After fixing an initial (admissible) value at some point $z_0inOmega$ the $log(z-c)$ picks up an additive constant $2pi i$ with every complete loop around the point $c$. In order to obtain a true analytic function $f$ we have to shrink $Omega$ to a subdomain $Omega'$ that does not contain such loops. How you do this is arbitrary (you could even draw a logarithmic spiral with center $c$). Make the cut that is most practical in the case of your concrete situation. You should be forced to "look over the cut" as little as possible.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Sorry...but what is ‘bona fide’?
              – Szeto
              Jul 24 at 14:01










            • It means: "as advertised", in other words: no additional questions necessary, as with $sin xover x$ at $x=0$.
              – Christian Blatter
              Jul 24 at 18:02












            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            You can write the derivative of the intended $f$ in the form
            $$f'(z)=a_-1over z-c+sum_kne-1a_kz^k=a_-1over z+g'(z) .$$
            Here $g'$ is the derivative of a bona fide analytic function $g:>Omegatomathbb C$, where $Omega$ is the given annulus. It follows that
            $$f(z)=a_-1 rm ''log(z-c)>rm ''+g(z)+K ,$$
            whereby we now have to make some sense of the $ rm ''log(z-c)>rm ''$ appearing here. After fixing an initial (admissible) value at some point $z_0inOmega$ the $log(z-c)$ picks up an additive constant $2pi i$ with every complete loop around the point $c$. In order to obtain a true analytic function $f$ we have to shrink $Omega$ to a subdomain $Omega'$ that does not contain such loops. How you do this is arbitrary (you could even draw a logarithmic spiral with center $c$). Make the cut that is most practical in the case of your concrete situation. You should be forced to "look over the cut" as little as possible.






            share|cite|improve this answer













            You can write the derivative of the intended $f$ in the form
            $$f'(z)=a_-1over z-c+sum_kne-1a_kz^k=a_-1over z+g'(z) .$$
            Here $g'$ is the derivative of a bona fide analytic function $g:>Omegatomathbb C$, where $Omega$ is the given annulus. It follows that
            $$f(z)=a_-1 rm ''log(z-c)>rm ''+g(z)+K ,$$
            whereby we now have to make some sense of the $ rm ''log(z-c)>rm ''$ appearing here. After fixing an initial (admissible) value at some point $z_0inOmega$ the $log(z-c)$ picks up an additive constant $2pi i$ with every complete loop around the point $c$. In order to obtain a true analytic function $f$ we have to shrink $Omega$ to a subdomain $Omega'$ that does not contain such loops. How you do this is arbitrary (you could even draw a logarithmic spiral with center $c$). Make the cut that is most practical in the case of your concrete situation. You should be forced to "look over the cut" as little as possible.







            share|cite|improve this answer













            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer











            answered Jul 24 at 13:01









            Christian Blatter

            163k7107306




            163k7107306











            • Sorry...but what is ‘bona fide’?
              – Szeto
              Jul 24 at 14:01










            • It means: "as advertised", in other words: no additional questions necessary, as with $sin xover x$ at $x=0$.
              – Christian Blatter
              Jul 24 at 18:02
















            • Sorry...but what is ‘bona fide’?
              – Szeto
              Jul 24 at 14:01










            • It means: "as advertised", in other words: no additional questions necessary, as with $sin xover x$ at $x=0$.
              – Christian Blatter
              Jul 24 at 18:02















            Sorry...but what is ‘bona fide’?
            – Szeto
            Jul 24 at 14:01




            Sorry...but what is ‘bona fide’?
            – Szeto
            Jul 24 at 14:01












            It means: "as advertised", in other words: no additional questions necessary, as with $sin xover x$ at $x=0$.
            – Christian Blatter
            Jul 24 at 18:02




            It means: "as advertised", in other words: no additional questions necessary, as with $sin xover x$ at $x=0$.
            – Christian Blatter
            Jul 24 at 18:02










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            The integration $f'(z)$ into $f(z)$ requires a constant. If $F(z)$ is a antiderivative of $f'(z)$ then $f(z) = F(z) + c$, $c in mathbbC$. When integrating complex function this constant is being determined by the branch of the $log$ so if given a $log$ branch (usually given by the value of $f(w)$ for a given $w$) this will determine the value of $c$.






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              The integration $f'(z)$ into $f(z)$ requires a constant. If $F(z)$ is a antiderivative of $f'(z)$ then $f(z) = F(z) + c$, $c in mathbbC$. When integrating complex function this constant is being determined by the branch of the $log$ so if given a $log$ branch (usually given by the value of $f(w)$ for a given $w$) this will determine the value of $c$.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                The integration $f'(z)$ into $f(z)$ requires a constant. If $F(z)$ is a antiderivative of $f'(z)$ then $f(z) = F(z) + c$, $c in mathbbC$. When integrating complex function this constant is being determined by the branch of the $log$ so if given a $log$ branch (usually given by the value of $f(w)$ for a given $w$) this will determine the value of $c$.






                share|cite|improve this answer















                The integration $f'(z)$ into $f(z)$ requires a constant. If $F(z)$ is a antiderivative of $f'(z)$ then $f(z) = F(z) + c$, $c in mathbbC$. When integrating complex function this constant is being determined by the branch of the $log$ so if given a $log$ branch (usually given by the value of $f(w)$ for a given $w$) this will determine the value of $c$.







                share|cite|improve this answer















                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Jul 25 at 12:31









                Daniel Buck

                2,3041623




                2,3041623











                answered Jul 25 at 12:19









                José Carlos

                101




                101






















                     

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