Finding acceleration of a curve in three dimensions

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An aeroplane flying on a great circle, it was shown that its velocity in spherical coordinates is



$$ mathbf v(t) = frac sin gamma sin t sqrt1-sin^2 gamma cos^2 t mathbfe_theta + frac cos gammasqrt1-sin^2 gamma cos^2 t mathbfe_phi$$



where $γ$ is the angle of tilt from the equatorial plane. Also, we assumed $r$ to be $1$. Find $mathbfa(t)$ and prove it is $bf proportional$ to $mathbfe_r$



Try



Now, taking derivatives in spherical coordinates is difficult. I know that the position in rectangular coord is given by



$$ r = cos γ cos t mathbfi + sin t mathbfj + sin γ cos t mathbfk , $$



So, in rectangular coords,



$$ a(t) = - cos gamma cos t mathbfi - sin t mathbfj - sin gamma cos t mathbfk = - r $$



Do I have to convert this back to spherical? is this a correct approach?







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    An aeroplane flying on a great circle, it was shown that its velocity in spherical coordinates is



    $$ mathbf v(t) = frac sin gamma sin t sqrt1-sin^2 gamma cos^2 t mathbfe_theta + frac cos gammasqrt1-sin^2 gamma cos^2 t mathbfe_phi$$



    where $γ$ is the angle of tilt from the equatorial plane. Also, we assumed $r$ to be $1$. Find $mathbfa(t)$ and prove it is $bf proportional$ to $mathbfe_r$



    Try



    Now, taking derivatives in spherical coordinates is difficult. I know that the position in rectangular coord is given by



    $$ r = cos γ cos t mathbfi + sin t mathbfj + sin γ cos t mathbfk , $$



    So, in rectangular coords,



    $$ a(t) = - cos gamma cos t mathbfi - sin t mathbfj - sin gamma cos t mathbfk = - r $$



    Do I have to convert this back to spherical? is this a correct approach?







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      An aeroplane flying on a great circle, it was shown that its velocity in spherical coordinates is



      $$ mathbf v(t) = frac sin gamma sin t sqrt1-sin^2 gamma cos^2 t mathbfe_theta + frac cos gammasqrt1-sin^2 gamma cos^2 t mathbfe_phi$$



      where $γ$ is the angle of tilt from the equatorial plane. Also, we assumed $r$ to be $1$. Find $mathbfa(t)$ and prove it is $bf proportional$ to $mathbfe_r$



      Try



      Now, taking derivatives in spherical coordinates is difficult. I know that the position in rectangular coord is given by



      $$ r = cos γ cos t mathbfi + sin t mathbfj + sin γ cos t mathbfk , $$



      So, in rectangular coords,



      $$ a(t) = - cos gamma cos t mathbfi - sin t mathbfj - sin gamma cos t mathbfk = - r $$



      Do I have to convert this back to spherical? is this a correct approach?







      share|cite|improve this question











      An aeroplane flying on a great circle, it was shown that its velocity in spherical coordinates is



      $$ mathbf v(t) = frac sin gamma sin t sqrt1-sin^2 gamma cos^2 t mathbfe_theta + frac cos gammasqrt1-sin^2 gamma cos^2 t mathbfe_phi$$



      where $γ$ is the angle of tilt from the equatorial plane. Also, we assumed $r$ to be $1$. Find $mathbfa(t)$ and prove it is $bf proportional$ to $mathbfe_r$



      Try



      Now, taking derivatives in spherical coordinates is difficult. I know that the position in rectangular coord is given by



      $$ r = cos γ cos t mathbfi + sin t mathbfj + sin γ cos t mathbfk , $$



      So, in rectangular coords,



      $$ a(t) = - cos gamma cos t mathbfi - sin t mathbfj - sin gamma cos t mathbfk = - r $$



      Do I have to convert this back to spherical? is this a correct approach?









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      asked Jul 31 at 5:21









      Jimmy Sabater

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          If your $bf r(t)$ as written is correct then your try is fine. It remains the question why you started to work with $bf e_r$, $bf e_phi$, and $bf e_theta$ to begin with. I have never seen your first formula before.



          One easily computes $|bf v(t)|^2equiv1$, hence the plane is flying with constant speed $1$ on a circle of radius $1$. We therefore may as well look at the motion
          $$tmapsto bf z(t)=cos t>bf e_1+sin t>bf e_2$$
          in the plane of said great circle, whereby $bf e_1$ and $bf e_2$ are fixed orthonormal vectors in this plane. One computes $bf v(t)=dotbf z(t)=-sin t>bf e_1+cos t>bf e_2$ and
          $$bf a(t)=ddotbf z(t)=-cos t>bf e_1-sin t>bf e_2=-bf z(t) .$$
          This says that the acceleration $bf a(t)$, considered as a vector in the tangent space $T_bf z(t)$, is at all times directed to the center of the circle. In your moving coordinate system this means that $bf a(t)$ is $>=-bf e_rin T_bf r$ at all times.






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            1 Answer
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            up vote
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            down vote













            If your $bf r(t)$ as written is correct then your try is fine. It remains the question why you started to work with $bf e_r$, $bf e_phi$, and $bf e_theta$ to begin with. I have never seen your first formula before.



            One easily computes $|bf v(t)|^2equiv1$, hence the plane is flying with constant speed $1$ on a circle of radius $1$. We therefore may as well look at the motion
            $$tmapsto bf z(t)=cos t>bf e_1+sin t>bf e_2$$
            in the plane of said great circle, whereby $bf e_1$ and $bf e_2$ are fixed orthonormal vectors in this plane. One computes $bf v(t)=dotbf z(t)=-sin t>bf e_1+cos t>bf e_2$ and
            $$bf a(t)=ddotbf z(t)=-cos t>bf e_1-sin t>bf e_2=-bf z(t) .$$
            This says that the acceleration $bf a(t)$, considered as a vector in the tangent space $T_bf z(t)$, is at all times directed to the center of the circle. In your moving coordinate system this means that $bf a(t)$ is $>=-bf e_rin T_bf r$ at all times.






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              If your $bf r(t)$ as written is correct then your try is fine. It remains the question why you started to work with $bf e_r$, $bf e_phi$, and $bf e_theta$ to begin with. I have never seen your first formula before.



              One easily computes $|bf v(t)|^2equiv1$, hence the plane is flying with constant speed $1$ on a circle of radius $1$. We therefore may as well look at the motion
              $$tmapsto bf z(t)=cos t>bf e_1+sin t>bf e_2$$
              in the plane of said great circle, whereby $bf e_1$ and $bf e_2$ are fixed orthonormal vectors in this plane. One computes $bf v(t)=dotbf z(t)=-sin t>bf e_1+cos t>bf e_2$ and
              $$bf a(t)=ddotbf z(t)=-cos t>bf e_1-sin t>bf e_2=-bf z(t) .$$
              This says that the acceleration $bf a(t)$, considered as a vector in the tangent space $T_bf z(t)$, is at all times directed to the center of the circle. In your moving coordinate system this means that $bf a(t)$ is $>=-bf e_rin T_bf r$ at all times.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                If your $bf r(t)$ as written is correct then your try is fine. It remains the question why you started to work with $bf e_r$, $bf e_phi$, and $bf e_theta$ to begin with. I have never seen your first formula before.



                One easily computes $|bf v(t)|^2equiv1$, hence the plane is flying with constant speed $1$ on a circle of radius $1$. We therefore may as well look at the motion
                $$tmapsto bf z(t)=cos t>bf e_1+sin t>bf e_2$$
                in the plane of said great circle, whereby $bf e_1$ and $bf e_2$ are fixed orthonormal vectors in this plane. One computes $bf v(t)=dotbf z(t)=-sin t>bf e_1+cos t>bf e_2$ and
                $$bf a(t)=ddotbf z(t)=-cos t>bf e_1-sin t>bf e_2=-bf z(t) .$$
                This says that the acceleration $bf a(t)$, considered as a vector in the tangent space $T_bf z(t)$, is at all times directed to the center of the circle. In your moving coordinate system this means that $bf a(t)$ is $>=-bf e_rin T_bf r$ at all times.






                share|cite|improve this answer















                If your $bf r(t)$ as written is correct then your try is fine. It remains the question why you started to work with $bf e_r$, $bf e_phi$, and $bf e_theta$ to begin with. I have never seen your first formula before.



                One easily computes $|bf v(t)|^2equiv1$, hence the plane is flying with constant speed $1$ on a circle of radius $1$. We therefore may as well look at the motion
                $$tmapsto bf z(t)=cos t>bf e_1+sin t>bf e_2$$
                in the plane of said great circle, whereby $bf e_1$ and $bf e_2$ are fixed orthonormal vectors in this plane. One computes $bf v(t)=dotbf z(t)=-sin t>bf e_1+cos t>bf e_2$ and
                $$bf a(t)=ddotbf z(t)=-cos t>bf e_1-sin t>bf e_2=-bf z(t) .$$
                This says that the acceleration $bf a(t)$, considered as a vector in the tangent space $T_bf z(t)$, is at all times directed to the center of the circle. In your moving coordinate system this means that $bf a(t)$ is $>=-bf e_rin T_bf r$ at all times.







                share|cite|improve this answer















                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Aug 1 at 10:16


























                answered Jul 31 at 7:26









                Christian Blatter

                163k7107305




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