For what $c in mathbbC$ is there a entire function such that $f(1/k) = c^k$?

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For what $c in mathbbC$ is there a entire function $f$ such that $f(1/k) = c^k$?



I would like to use the identity theorem. However, the obvious choice of $c^1/z = e^log(c)/z$ is not analytic at the limit point $0$.



If $|c|>1$, by continuity we get $f(0) to infty$, but that contradicts that $f$ is entire.



If $|c|<1$, we can get $f equiv 0$. Suppose not, and choose $n$ to be such that $f^(n)(0) neq 0$.Then by looking at the series expansion of $f$ one can see $frac1z^nf(z)$ does not go to $0$ as $z to 0$. But, $f(1/k) = k^nc^k to 0$ as $k to infty$.



What about $|c|=1$? Well, if $c=1$ then $f equiv 1$ satisfies the condition. If $c = e^ifracpqpi$ for rational $p/q$, I can choose a subsequence of $f(1/k)$ that equals $1$ and apply the identity theorem to get $f equiv 1$.



I have an idea on how to handle the other $|c|=1$, but it is not pretty, and I would like others' thoughts.







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    up vote
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    For what $c in mathbbC$ is there a entire function $f$ such that $f(1/k) = c^k$?



    I would like to use the identity theorem. However, the obvious choice of $c^1/z = e^log(c)/z$ is not analytic at the limit point $0$.



    If $|c|>1$, by continuity we get $f(0) to infty$, but that contradicts that $f$ is entire.



    If $|c|<1$, we can get $f equiv 0$. Suppose not, and choose $n$ to be such that $f^(n)(0) neq 0$.Then by looking at the series expansion of $f$ one can see $frac1z^nf(z)$ does not go to $0$ as $z to 0$. But, $f(1/k) = k^nc^k to 0$ as $k to infty$.



    What about $|c|=1$? Well, if $c=1$ then $f equiv 1$ satisfies the condition. If $c = e^ifracpqpi$ for rational $p/q$, I can choose a subsequence of $f(1/k)$ that equals $1$ and apply the identity theorem to get $f equiv 1$.



    I have an idea on how to handle the other $|c|=1$, but it is not pretty, and I would like others' thoughts.







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      For what $c in mathbbC$ is there a entire function $f$ such that $f(1/k) = c^k$?



      I would like to use the identity theorem. However, the obvious choice of $c^1/z = e^log(c)/z$ is not analytic at the limit point $0$.



      If $|c|>1$, by continuity we get $f(0) to infty$, but that contradicts that $f$ is entire.



      If $|c|<1$, we can get $f equiv 0$. Suppose not, and choose $n$ to be such that $f^(n)(0) neq 0$.Then by looking at the series expansion of $f$ one can see $frac1z^nf(z)$ does not go to $0$ as $z to 0$. But, $f(1/k) = k^nc^k to 0$ as $k to infty$.



      What about $|c|=1$? Well, if $c=1$ then $f equiv 1$ satisfies the condition. If $c = e^ifracpqpi$ for rational $p/q$, I can choose a subsequence of $f(1/k)$ that equals $1$ and apply the identity theorem to get $f equiv 1$.



      I have an idea on how to handle the other $|c|=1$, but it is not pretty, and I would like others' thoughts.







      share|cite|improve this question











      For what $c in mathbbC$ is there a entire function $f$ such that $f(1/k) = c^k$?



      I would like to use the identity theorem. However, the obvious choice of $c^1/z = e^log(c)/z$ is not analytic at the limit point $0$.



      If $|c|>1$, by continuity we get $f(0) to infty$, but that contradicts that $f$ is entire.



      If $|c|<1$, we can get $f equiv 0$. Suppose not, and choose $n$ to be such that $f^(n)(0) neq 0$.Then by looking at the series expansion of $f$ one can see $frac1z^nf(z)$ does not go to $0$ as $z to 0$. But, $f(1/k) = k^nc^k to 0$ as $k to infty$.



      What about $|c|=1$? Well, if $c=1$ then $f equiv 1$ satisfies the condition. If $c = e^ifracpqpi$ for rational $p/q$, I can choose a subsequence of $f(1/k)$ that equals $1$ and apply the identity theorem to get $f equiv 1$.



      I have an idea on how to handle the other $|c|=1$, but it is not pretty, and I would like others' thoughts.









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      asked Jul 25 at 0:04









      Pentaki

      745




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          It is well known that $c^k:k geq 1$ is dense in the unit circle if $c$ is not a root of unity (i.e. $c=e^2pi it$ with $t$ irrational). In this case we get a contradiction to the fact that $f(frac 1 k) to f(0)$. If $c$ is a root of unity then $f(frac 1 k)=1$ for infinitely many $n$, so $f equiv 1$.






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            If $|c|=1,$ then $lim c^k$ exists iff $c=1.$ Proof: We only need to prove the forward direction. Let $L = lim c^k.$ Then $Lne 0$ and we have



            $$c=fracc^k+1c^k to fracLL=1.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer




























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              Given $c in mathbbCsetminus0$, let $f$ be an entire function that satisfies $f(1/k) = c^k$ for all $k = 1, 2, cdots$. Write $f(z) = z^m g(z)$ for some $m geq 0$ and entire function $g(z)$ with $g(0) neq 0$. Then



              $$ c^k = f(1/k) = k^-m g(1/k) $$



              and hence



              $$ 1 = lim_ktoinfty fracg(frac1k+1)g(frac1k) = c. $$



              So $f(1/k) = 1$ for all $k = 1, 2, cdots$ and by the identity theorem, $f equiv 1$.






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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes








                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes








                up vote
                5
                down vote



                accepted










                It is well known that $c^k:k geq 1$ is dense in the unit circle if $c$ is not a root of unity (i.e. $c=e^2pi it$ with $t$ irrational). In this case we get a contradiction to the fact that $f(frac 1 k) to f(0)$. If $c$ is a root of unity then $f(frac 1 k)=1$ for infinitely many $n$, so $f equiv 1$.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  5
                  down vote



                  accepted










                  It is well known that $c^k:k geq 1$ is dense in the unit circle if $c$ is not a root of unity (i.e. $c=e^2pi it$ with $t$ irrational). In this case we get a contradiction to the fact that $f(frac 1 k) to f(0)$. If $c$ is a root of unity then $f(frac 1 k)=1$ for infinitely many $n$, so $f equiv 1$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    5
                    down vote



                    accepted







                    up vote
                    5
                    down vote



                    accepted






                    It is well known that $c^k:k geq 1$ is dense in the unit circle if $c$ is not a root of unity (i.e. $c=e^2pi it$ with $t$ irrational). In this case we get a contradiction to the fact that $f(frac 1 k) to f(0)$. If $c$ is a root of unity then $f(frac 1 k)=1$ for infinitely many $n$, so $f equiv 1$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer













                    It is well known that $c^k:k geq 1$ is dense in the unit circle if $c$ is not a root of unity (i.e. $c=e^2pi it$ with $t$ irrational). In this case we get a contradiction to the fact that $f(frac 1 k) to f(0)$. If $c$ is a root of unity then $f(frac 1 k)=1$ for infinitely many $n$, so $f equiv 1$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer













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                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    answered Jul 25 at 0:30









                    Kavi Rama Murthy

                    20.1k2829




                    20.1k2829




















                        up vote
                        3
                        down vote













                        If $|c|=1,$ then $lim c^k$ exists iff $c=1.$ Proof: We only need to prove the forward direction. Let $L = lim c^k.$ Then $Lne 0$ and we have



                        $$c=fracc^k+1c^k to fracLL=1.$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          3
                          down vote













                          If $|c|=1,$ then $lim c^k$ exists iff $c=1.$ Proof: We only need to prove the forward direction. Let $L = lim c^k.$ Then $Lne 0$ and we have



                          $$c=fracc^k+1c^k to fracLL=1.$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            3
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            3
                            down vote









                            If $|c|=1,$ then $lim c^k$ exists iff $c=1.$ Proof: We only need to prove the forward direction. Let $L = lim c^k.$ Then $Lne 0$ and we have



                            $$c=fracc^k+1c^k to fracLL=1.$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer













                            If $|c|=1,$ then $lim c^k$ exists iff $c=1.$ Proof: We only need to prove the forward direction. Let $L = lim c^k.$ Then $Lne 0$ and we have



                            $$c=fracc^k+1c^k to fracLL=1.$$







                            share|cite|improve this answer













                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            answered Jul 25 at 21:06









                            zhw.

                            65.6k42870




                            65.6k42870




















                                up vote
                                2
                                down vote













                                Given $c in mathbbCsetminus0$, let $f$ be an entire function that satisfies $f(1/k) = c^k$ for all $k = 1, 2, cdots$. Write $f(z) = z^m g(z)$ for some $m geq 0$ and entire function $g(z)$ with $g(0) neq 0$. Then



                                $$ c^k = f(1/k) = k^-m g(1/k) $$



                                and hence



                                $$ 1 = lim_ktoinfty fracg(frac1k+1)g(frac1k) = c. $$



                                So $f(1/k) = 1$ for all $k = 1, 2, cdots$ and by the identity theorem, $f equiv 1$.






                                share|cite|improve this answer

























                                  up vote
                                  2
                                  down vote













                                  Given $c in mathbbCsetminus0$, let $f$ be an entire function that satisfies $f(1/k) = c^k$ for all $k = 1, 2, cdots$. Write $f(z) = z^m g(z)$ for some $m geq 0$ and entire function $g(z)$ with $g(0) neq 0$. Then



                                  $$ c^k = f(1/k) = k^-m g(1/k) $$



                                  and hence



                                  $$ 1 = lim_ktoinfty fracg(frac1k+1)g(frac1k) = c. $$



                                  So $f(1/k) = 1$ for all $k = 1, 2, cdots$ and by the identity theorem, $f equiv 1$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer























                                    up vote
                                    2
                                    down vote










                                    up vote
                                    2
                                    down vote









                                    Given $c in mathbbCsetminus0$, let $f$ be an entire function that satisfies $f(1/k) = c^k$ for all $k = 1, 2, cdots$. Write $f(z) = z^m g(z)$ for some $m geq 0$ and entire function $g(z)$ with $g(0) neq 0$. Then



                                    $$ c^k = f(1/k) = k^-m g(1/k) $$



                                    and hence



                                    $$ 1 = lim_ktoinfty fracg(frac1k+1)g(frac1k) = c. $$



                                    So $f(1/k) = 1$ for all $k = 1, 2, cdots$ and by the identity theorem, $f equiv 1$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer













                                    Given $c in mathbbCsetminus0$, let $f$ be an entire function that satisfies $f(1/k) = c^k$ for all $k = 1, 2, cdots$. Write $f(z) = z^m g(z)$ for some $m geq 0$ and entire function $g(z)$ with $g(0) neq 0$. Then



                                    $$ c^k = f(1/k) = k^-m g(1/k) $$



                                    and hence



                                    $$ 1 = lim_ktoinfty fracg(frac1k+1)g(frac1k) = c. $$



                                    So $f(1/k) = 1$ for all $k = 1, 2, cdots$ and by the identity theorem, $f equiv 1$.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer













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                                    answered Jul 25 at 2:53









                                    Sangchul Lee

                                    85.5k12155253




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