If $P,Q$ are $p-$subgroup of $G$, then so is $PQ$. [closed]

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Let $G$ be a finite group and $p$ divide $|G|$. Suppose $P$ and $Q$ are two subgroups s.t. $Psubset N_G(Q)$. Prove that $PQ$ is a $p-$subgroup of $G$.



I imagine that I have to use second isomorphism theorem, but I don't know how to do.







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closed as off-topic by Derek Holt, Simply Beautiful Art, John Ma, Mostafa Ayaz, José Carlos Santos Aug 1 at 22:47


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Derek Holt, Simply Beautiful Art, John Ma, Mostafa Ayaz, José Carlos Santos
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
















    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    Let $G$ be a finite group and $p$ divide $|G|$. Suppose $P$ and $Q$ are two subgroups s.t. $Psubset N_G(Q)$. Prove that $PQ$ is a $p-$subgroup of $G$.



    I imagine that I have to use second isomorphism theorem, but I don't know how to do.







    share|cite|improve this question













    closed as off-topic by Derek Holt, Simply Beautiful Art, John Ma, Mostafa Ayaz, José Carlos Santos Aug 1 at 22:47


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Derek Holt, Simply Beautiful Art, John Ma, Mostafa Ayaz, José Carlos Santos
    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.














      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $G$ be a finite group and $p$ divide $|G|$. Suppose $P$ and $Q$ are two subgroups s.t. $Psubset N_G(Q)$. Prove that $PQ$ is a $p-$subgroup of $G$.



      I imagine that I have to use second isomorphism theorem, but I don't know how to do.







      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $G$ be a finite group and $p$ divide $|G|$. Suppose $P$ and $Q$ are two subgroups s.t. $Psubset N_G(Q)$. Prove that $PQ$ is a $p-$subgroup of $G$.



      I imagine that I have to use second isomorphism theorem, but I don't know how to do.









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 30 at 11:34









      mesel

      10.1k21644




      10.1k21644









      asked Jul 30 at 11:28









      Henri

      304




      304




      closed as off-topic by Derek Holt, Simply Beautiful Art, John Ma, Mostafa Ayaz, José Carlos Santos Aug 1 at 22:47


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Derek Holt, Simply Beautiful Art, John Ma, Mostafa Ayaz, José Carlos Santos
      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




      closed as off-topic by Derek Holt, Simply Beautiful Art, John Ma, Mostafa Ayaz, José Carlos Santos Aug 1 at 22:47


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Derek Holt, Simply Beautiful Art, John Ma, Mostafa Ayaz, José Carlos Santos
      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          You do not need second isomorphism theorem:



          Recall that the equality always true $$|HK|=dfracK.$$



          In general $HK$ need not to be a subgroup. Just notice that $HK$ is a group if $K$ normalizes $H$, that is, when $Kleq N_G(H)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • @Surb: It is an elementary fact and does not depend whether $HK$ is a subgroup or not. If you wish, I could write a proof for this fact.
            – mesel
            Jul 30 at 11:36










          • @Surb: you can also check from this: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168942/…
            – mesel
            Jul 30 at 11:38










          • Just to be sure : In this case, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ right ? Because $PQ$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$ (or not necessarily) (thanks for the link)
            – Surb
            Jul 30 at 11:39











          • Yes, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ in this case as $P$ normalize $Q$.
            – mesel
            Jul 30 at 11:41







          • 1




            It come from a peint of René Magritte "ceci n'est pas une pipe". I let you check on the internet :-)
            – Surb
            Jul 30 at 11:59

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Hint



          Your idea by using 2nd isomorphism theorem is the right idea. You have that $P$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$. Since $Qlhd N_G(Q)$ you have that $PQleq N_G(Q)$, and thus you can use 2nd isomorphism theorem in $N_G(Q)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            3
            down vote



            accepted










            You do not need second isomorphism theorem:



            Recall that the equality always true $$|HK|=dfracK.$$



            In general $HK$ need not to be a subgroup. Just notice that $HK$ is a group if $K$ normalizes $H$, that is, when $Kleq N_G(H)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • @Surb: It is an elementary fact and does not depend whether $HK$ is a subgroup or not. If you wish, I could write a proof for this fact.
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:36










            • @Surb: you can also check from this: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168942/…
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:38










            • Just to be sure : In this case, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ right ? Because $PQ$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$ (or not necessarily) (thanks for the link)
              – Surb
              Jul 30 at 11:39











            • Yes, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ in this case as $P$ normalize $Q$.
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:41







            • 1




              It come from a peint of René Magritte "ceci n'est pas une pipe". I let you check on the internet :-)
              – Surb
              Jul 30 at 11:59














            up vote
            3
            down vote



            accepted










            You do not need second isomorphism theorem:



            Recall that the equality always true $$|HK|=dfracK.$$



            In general $HK$ need not to be a subgroup. Just notice that $HK$ is a group if $K$ normalizes $H$, that is, when $Kleq N_G(H)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • @Surb: It is an elementary fact and does not depend whether $HK$ is a subgroup or not. If you wish, I could write a proof for this fact.
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:36










            • @Surb: you can also check from this: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168942/…
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:38










            • Just to be sure : In this case, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ right ? Because $PQ$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$ (or not necessarily) (thanks for the link)
              – Surb
              Jul 30 at 11:39











            • Yes, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ in this case as $P$ normalize $Q$.
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:41







            • 1




              It come from a peint of René Magritte "ceci n'est pas une pipe". I let you check on the internet :-)
              – Surb
              Jul 30 at 11:59












            up vote
            3
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            3
            down vote



            accepted






            You do not need second isomorphism theorem:



            Recall that the equality always true $$|HK|=dfracK.$$



            In general $HK$ need not to be a subgroup. Just notice that $HK$ is a group if $K$ normalizes $H$, that is, when $Kleq N_G(H)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer















            You do not need second isomorphism theorem:



            Recall that the equality always true $$|HK|=dfracK.$$



            In general $HK$ need not to be a subgroup. Just notice that $HK$ is a group if $K$ normalizes $H$, that is, when $Kleq N_G(H)$.







            share|cite|improve this answer















            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jul 30 at 13:03


























            answered Jul 30 at 11:32









            mesel

            10.1k21644




            10.1k21644











            • @Surb: It is an elementary fact and does not depend whether $HK$ is a subgroup or not. If you wish, I could write a proof for this fact.
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:36










            • @Surb: you can also check from this: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168942/…
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:38










            • Just to be sure : In this case, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ right ? Because $PQ$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$ (or not necessarily) (thanks for the link)
              – Surb
              Jul 30 at 11:39











            • Yes, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ in this case as $P$ normalize $Q$.
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:41







            • 1




              It come from a peint of René Magritte "ceci n'est pas une pipe". I let you check on the internet :-)
              – Surb
              Jul 30 at 11:59
















            • @Surb: It is an elementary fact and does not depend whether $HK$ is a subgroup or not. If you wish, I could write a proof for this fact.
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:36










            • @Surb: you can also check from this: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168942/…
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:38










            • Just to be sure : In this case, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ right ? Because $PQ$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$ (or not necessarily) (thanks for the link)
              – Surb
              Jul 30 at 11:39











            • Yes, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ in this case as $P$ normalize $Q$.
              – mesel
              Jul 30 at 11:41







            • 1




              It come from a peint of René Magritte "ceci n'est pas une pipe". I let you check on the internet :-)
              – Surb
              Jul 30 at 11:59















            @Surb: It is an elementary fact and does not depend whether $HK$ is a subgroup or not. If you wish, I could write a proof for this fact.
            – mesel
            Jul 30 at 11:36




            @Surb: It is an elementary fact and does not depend whether $HK$ is a subgroup or not. If you wish, I could write a proof for this fact.
            – mesel
            Jul 30 at 11:36












            @Surb: you can also check from this: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168942/…
            – mesel
            Jul 30 at 11:38




            @Surb: you can also check from this: math.stackexchange.com/questions/168942/…
            – mesel
            Jul 30 at 11:38












            Just to be sure : In this case, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ right ? Because $PQ$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$ (or not necessarily) (thanks for the link)
            – Surb
            Jul 30 at 11:39





            Just to be sure : In this case, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ right ? Because $PQ$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$ (or not necessarily) (thanks for the link)
            – Surb
            Jul 30 at 11:39













            Yes, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ in this case as $P$ normalize $Q$.
            – mesel
            Jul 30 at 11:41





            Yes, $PQ$ is a subgroup of $G$ in this case as $P$ normalize $Q$.
            – mesel
            Jul 30 at 11:41





            1




            1




            It come from a peint of René Magritte "ceci n'est pas une pipe". I let you check on the internet :-)
            – Surb
            Jul 30 at 11:59




            It come from a peint of René Magritte "ceci n'est pas une pipe". I let you check on the internet :-)
            – Surb
            Jul 30 at 11:59










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Hint



            Your idea by using 2nd isomorphism theorem is the right idea. You have that $P$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$. Since $Qlhd N_G(Q)$ you have that $PQleq N_G(Q)$, and thus you can use 2nd isomorphism theorem in $N_G(Q)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Hint



              Your idea by using 2nd isomorphism theorem is the right idea. You have that $P$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$. Since $Qlhd N_G(Q)$ you have that $PQleq N_G(Q)$, and thus you can use 2nd isomorphism theorem in $N_G(Q)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                Hint



                Your idea by using 2nd isomorphism theorem is the right idea. You have that $P$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$. Since $Qlhd N_G(Q)$ you have that $PQleq N_G(Q)$, and thus you can use 2nd isomorphism theorem in $N_G(Q)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer













                Hint



                Your idea by using 2nd isomorphism theorem is the right idea. You have that $P$ is a subgroup of $N_G(Q)$. Since $Qlhd N_G(Q)$ you have that $PQleq N_G(Q)$, and thus you can use 2nd isomorphism theorem in $N_G(Q)$.







                share|cite|improve this answer













                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer











                answered Jul 30 at 11:30









                Surb

                36.2k84274




                36.2k84274












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