Is it true that $sqrt(a_1+b_1+c_1)(a_2+b_2+c_2)geq sqrta_1a_2+sqrtb_1b_2+sqrtc_1c_2$? [closed]

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1












Let $a_1,b_1,c_1,a_2,b_2,c_2$ be positive real numbers. Is it true that




$sqrt(a_1+b_1+c_1)(a_2+b_2+c_2)geq sqrta_1a_2+sqrtb_1b_2+sqrtc_1c_2$




If this is true, then I will have proved an Olympiad problem. I couldn't find a counter-example.







share|cite|improve this question











closed as off-topic by Alex Francisco, Claude Leibovici, Gibbs, Jyrki Lahtonen, Adrian Keister Jul 18 at 13:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Alex Francisco, Claude Leibovici, Gibbs, Jyrki Lahtonen, Adrian Keister
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    visual proof for this would have been great. could someone do that?
    – Nick
    Jul 18 at 3:13






  • 1




    @Nick the derivative proof below is in some sense "visual": you have that as you grow e.g. $a_1$, then the left-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2+b_2+c_2)$, while the right-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2)$, which is clearly less.
    – Anonymous
    Jul 18 at 23:35















up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1












Let $a_1,b_1,c_1,a_2,b_2,c_2$ be positive real numbers. Is it true that




$sqrt(a_1+b_1+c_1)(a_2+b_2+c_2)geq sqrta_1a_2+sqrtb_1b_2+sqrtc_1c_2$




If this is true, then I will have proved an Olympiad problem. I couldn't find a counter-example.







share|cite|improve this question











closed as off-topic by Alex Francisco, Claude Leibovici, Gibbs, Jyrki Lahtonen, Adrian Keister Jul 18 at 13:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Alex Francisco, Claude Leibovici, Gibbs, Jyrki Lahtonen, Adrian Keister
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    visual proof for this would have been great. could someone do that?
    – Nick
    Jul 18 at 3:13






  • 1




    @Nick the derivative proof below is in some sense "visual": you have that as you grow e.g. $a_1$, then the left-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2+b_2+c_2)$, while the right-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2)$, which is clearly less.
    – Anonymous
    Jul 18 at 23:35













up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1






1





Let $a_1,b_1,c_1,a_2,b_2,c_2$ be positive real numbers. Is it true that




$sqrt(a_1+b_1+c_1)(a_2+b_2+c_2)geq sqrta_1a_2+sqrtb_1b_2+sqrtc_1c_2$




If this is true, then I will have proved an Olympiad problem. I couldn't find a counter-example.







share|cite|improve this question











Let $a_1,b_1,c_1,a_2,b_2,c_2$ be positive real numbers. Is it true that




$sqrt(a_1+b_1+c_1)(a_2+b_2+c_2)geq sqrta_1a_2+sqrtb_1b_2+sqrtc_1c_2$




If this is true, then I will have proved an Olympiad problem. I couldn't find a counter-example.









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 18 at 1:43









fierydemon

4,32312152




4,32312152




closed as off-topic by Alex Francisco, Claude Leibovici, Gibbs, Jyrki Lahtonen, Adrian Keister Jul 18 at 13:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Alex Francisco, Claude Leibovici, Gibbs, Jyrki Lahtonen, Adrian Keister
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Alex Francisco, Claude Leibovici, Gibbs, Jyrki Lahtonen, Adrian Keister Jul 18 at 13:34


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Alex Francisco, Claude Leibovici, Gibbs, Jyrki Lahtonen, Adrian Keister
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







  • 1




    visual proof for this would have been great. could someone do that?
    – Nick
    Jul 18 at 3:13






  • 1




    @Nick the derivative proof below is in some sense "visual": you have that as you grow e.g. $a_1$, then the left-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2+b_2+c_2)$, while the right-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2)$, which is clearly less.
    – Anonymous
    Jul 18 at 23:35













  • 1




    visual proof for this would have been great. could someone do that?
    – Nick
    Jul 18 at 3:13






  • 1




    @Nick the derivative proof below is in some sense "visual": you have that as you grow e.g. $a_1$, then the left-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2+b_2+c_2)$, while the right-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2)$, which is clearly less.
    – Anonymous
    Jul 18 at 23:35








1




1




visual proof for this would have been great. could someone do that?
– Nick
Jul 18 at 3:13




visual proof for this would have been great. could someone do that?
– Nick
Jul 18 at 3:13




1




1




@Nick the derivative proof below is in some sense "visual": you have that as you grow e.g. $a_1$, then the left-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2+b_2+c_2)$, while the right-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2)$, which is clearly less.
– Anonymous
Jul 18 at 23:35





@Nick the derivative proof below is in some sense "visual": you have that as you grow e.g. $a_1$, then the left-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2+b_2+c_2)$, while the right-hand side grows as $fracddxsqrtx(a_2)$, which is clearly less.
– Anonymous
Jul 18 at 23:35











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
4
down vote



accepted










Square both sides (they are non-negative) and rewrite the terms:
$$iff(sqrta_1sqrta_1+sqrtb_1sqrtb_1+sqrtc_1sqrtc_1)(sqrta_2sqrta_2+sqrtb_2sqrtb_2+sqrtc_2sqrtc_2)ge(sqrta_1sqrta_2+sqrtb_1sqrtb_2+sqrtc_1sqrtc_2)^2$$
This is precisely the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality applied on $(sqrta_1,sqrtb_1,sqrtc_1)$ and $(sqrta_2,sqrtb_2,sqrtc_2)$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thanks! Should have seen that! I was just scared about that inequality not being true I guess
    – fierydemon
    Jul 18 at 2:23

















up vote
0
down vote













An alternative proof (to the "standard" Cauchy-Schwarz one) is to verify that the inequality holds (as an equality) when all the variables equal $0$; and that, when all variables are non-negative, the partial derivative of the left-hand side with respect to any variable equals or exceeds the partial derivative of the right-hand side (so, if you "grow" the variables from $0$ to whatever non-negative values you want, the "advantage" of the left-hand side can only grow).



In fact, by the same argument if all variables are strictly positive, the inequality becomes strict!



Note that this argument does require some care if you want to formalize it, because the derivative of $sqrtx$ with respect to $x$ diverges to $+infty$ as $x$ converges to $0$.






share|cite|improve this answer






























    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted










    Square both sides (they are non-negative) and rewrite the terms:
    $$iff(sqrta_1sqrta_1+sqrtb_1sqrtb_1+sqrtc_1sqrtc_1)(sqrta_2sqrta_2+sqrtb_2sqrtb_2+sqrtc_2sqrtc_2)ge(sqrta_1sqrta_2+sqrtb_1sqrtb_2+sqrtc_1sqrtc_2)^2$$
    This is precisely the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality applied on $(sqrta_1,sqrtb_1,sqrtc_1)$ and $(sqrta_2,sqrtb_2,sqrtc_2)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thanks! Should have seen that! I was just scared about that inequality not being true I guess
      – fierydemon
      Jul 18 at 2:23














    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted










    Square both sides (they are non-negative) and rewrite the terms:
    $$iff(sqrta_1sqrta_1+sqrtb_1sqrtb_1+sqrtc_1sqrtc_1)(sqrta_2sqrta_2+sqrtb_2sqrtb_2+sqrtc_2sqrtc_2)ge(sqrta_1sqrta_2+sqrtb_1sqrtb_2+sqrtc_1sqrtc_2)^2$$
    This is precisely the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality applied on $(sqrta_1,sqrtb_1,sqrtc_1)$ and $(sqrta_2,sqrtb_2,sqrtc_2)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thanks! Should have seen that! I was just scared about that inequality not being true I guess
      – fierydemon
      Jul 18 at 2:23












    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted






    Square both sides (they are non-negative) and rewrite the terms:
    $$iff(sqrta_1sqrta_1+sqrtb_1sqrtb_1+sqrtc_1sqrtc_1)(sqrta_2sqrta_2+sqrtb_2sqrtb_2+sqrtc_2sqrtc_2)ge(sqrta_1sqrta_2+sqrtb_1sqrtb_2+sqrtc_1sqrtc_2)^2$$
    This is precisely the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality applied on $(sqrta_1,sqrtb_1,sqrtc_1)$ and $(sqrta_2,sqrtb_2,sqrtc_2)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer













    Square both sides (they are non-negative) and rewrite the terms:
    $$iff(sqrta_1sqrta_1+sqrtb_1sqrtb_1+sqrtc_1sqrtc_1)(sqrta_2sqrta_2+sqrtb_2sqrtb_2+sqrtc_2sqrtc_2)ge(sqrta_1sqrta_2+sqrtb_1sqrtb_2+sqrtc_1sqrtc_2)^2$$
    This is precisely the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality applied on $(sqrta_1,sqrtb_1,sqrtc_1)$ and $(sqrta_2,sqrtb_2,sqrtc_2)$.







    share|cite|improve this answer













    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer











    answered Jul 18 at 1:58









    Parcly Taxel

    33.6k136588




    33.6k136588











    • Thanks! Should have seen that! I was just scared about that inequality not being true I guess
      – fierydemon
      Jul 18 at 2:23
















    • Thanks! Should have seen that! I was just scared about that inequality not being true I guess
      – fierydemon
      Jul 18 at 2:23















    Thanks! Should have seen that! I was just scared about that inequality not being true I guess
    – fierydemon
    Jul 18 at 2:23




    Thanks! Should have seen that! I was just scared about that inequality not being true I guess
    – fierydemon
    Jul 18 at 2:23










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    An alternative proof (to the "standard" Cauchy-Schwarz one) is to verify that the inequality holds (as an equality) when all the variables equal $0$; and that, when all variables are non-negative, the partial derivative of the left-hand side with respect to any variable equals or exceeds the partial derivative of the right-hand side (so, if you "grow" the variables from $0$ to whatever non-negative values you want, the "advantage" of the left-hand side can only grow).



    In fact, by the same argument if all variables are strictly positive, the inequality becomes strict!



    Note that this argument does require some care if you want to formalize it, because the derivative of $sqrtx$ with respect to $x$ diverges to $+infty$ as $x$ converges to $0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      An alternative proof (to the "standard" Cauchy-Schwarz one) is to verify that the inequality holds (as an equality) when all the variables equal $0$; and that, when all variables are non-negative, the partial derivative of the left-hand side with respect to any variable equals or exceeds the partial derivative of the right-hand side (so, if you "grow" the variables from $0$ to whatever non-negative values you want, the "advantage" of the left-hand side can only grow).



      In fact, by the same argument if all variables are strictly positive, the inequality becomes strict!



      Note that this argument does require some care if you want to formalize it, because the derivative of $sqrtx$ with respect to $x$ diverges to $+infty$ as $x$ converges to $0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        An alternative proof (to the "standard" Cauchy-Schwarz one) is to verify that the inequality holds (as an equality) when all the variables equal $0$; and that, when all variables are non-negative, the partial derivative of the left-hand side with respect to any variable equals or exceeds the partial derivative of the right-hand side (so, if you "grow" the variables from $0$ to whatever non-negative values you want, the "advantage" of the left-hand side can only grow).



        In fact, by the same argument if all variables are strictly positive, the inequality becomes strict!



        Note that this argument does require some care if you want to formalize it, because the derivative of $sqrtx$ with respect to $x$ diverges to $+infty$ as $x$ converges to $0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer















        An alternative proof (to the "standard" Cauchy-Schwarz one) is to verify that the inequality holds (as an equality) when all the variables equal $0$; and that, when all variables are non-negative, the partial derivative of the left-hand side with respect to any variable equals or exceeds the partial derivative of the right-hand side (so, if you "grow" the variables from $0$ to whatever non-negative values you want, the "advantage" of the left-hand side can only grow).



        In fact, by the same argument if all variables are strictly positive, the inequality becomes strict!



        Note that this argument does require some care if you want to formalize it, because the derivative of $sqrtx$ with respect to $x$ diverges to $+infty$ as $x$ converges to $0$.







        share|cite|improve this answer















        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jul 18 at 2:17


























        answered Jul 18 at 2:12









        Anonymous

        4,8033940




        4,8033940












            Comments

            Popular posts from this blog

            What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

            Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

            Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?