Is a non-euclidean-norm preserving map necessarily linear?

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Let $V$ and $W$ be two normed vector spaces and let $f:V rightarrow W$ be a norm preserving map. I know that if both norms correspond to some inner product then $f$ is necessarily linear, but I can't find the answer for the more general case of normed vector spaces.



I suspect the answer is no, so I tried to come up with a counter-example involving "pseudo" rotations along non-euclideanly-spherical paths centered at the origin of $mathbb R^2$, unsuccessfully.



I'd most importantly like an answer that does not assume $f$ to be surjective. However, any additional information about that particular case would be appreciated as well.







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    The surjective case is also affine, that is the content of Mazur-Ulam.
    – spiralstotheleft
    Jul 30 at 12:05






  • 1




    Examples of non-affine can be found here for the non-surjective case.
    – spiralstotheleft
    Jul 30 at 12:07















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $V$ and $W$ be two normed vector spaces and let $f:V rightarrow W$ be a norm preserving map. I know that if both norms correspond to some inner product then $f$ is necessarily linear, but I can't find the answer for the more general case of normed vector spaces.



I suspect the answer is no, so I tried to come up with a counter-example involving "pseudo" rotations along non-euclideanly-spherical paths centered at the origin of $mathbb R^2$, unsuccessfully.



I'd most importantly like an answer that does not assume $f$ to be surjective. However, any additional information about that particular case would be appreciated as well.







share|cite|improve this question















  • 1




    The surjective case is also affine, that is the content of Mazur-Ulam.
    – spiralstotheleft
    Jul 30 at 12:05






  • 1




    Examples of non-affine can be found here for the non-surjective case.
    – spiralstotheleft
    Jul 30 at 12:07













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $V$ and $W$ be two normed vector spaces and let $f:V rightarrow W$ be a norm preserving map. I know that if both norms correspond to some inner product then $f$ is necessarily linear, but I can't find the answer for the more general case of normed vector spaces.



I suspect the answer is no, so I tried to come up with a counter-example involving "pseudo" rotations along non-euclideanly-spherical paths centered at the origin of $mathbb R^2$, unsuccessfully.



I'd most importantly like an answer that does not assume $f$ to be surjective. However, any additional information about that particular case would be appreciated as well.







share|cite|improve this question











Let $V$ and $W$ be two normed vector spaces and let $f:V rightarrow W$ be a norm preserving map. I know that if both norms correspond to some inner product then $f$ is necessarily linear, but I can't find the answer for the more general case of normed vector spaces.



I suspect the answer is no, so I tried to come up with a counter-example involving "pseudo" rotations along non-euclideanly-spherical paths centered at the origin of $mathbb R^2$, unsuccessfully.



I'd most importantly like an answer that does not assume $f$ to be surjective. However, any additional information about that particular case would be appreciated as well.









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




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asked Jul 30 at 12:01









user493048

686




686







  • 1




    The surjective case is also affine, that is the content of Mazur-Ulam.
    – spiralstotheleft
    Jul 30 at 12:05






  • 1




    Examples of non-affine can be found here for the non-surjective case.
    – spiralstotheleft
    Jul 30 at 12:07













  • 1




    The surjective case is also affine, that is the content of Mazur-Ulam.
    – spiralstotheleft
    Jul 30 at 12:05






  • 1




    Examples of non-affine can be found here for the non-surjective case.
    – spiralstotheleft
    Jul 30 at 12:07








1




1




The surjective case is also affine, that is the content of Mazur-Ulam.
– spiralstotheleft
Jul 30 at 12:05




The surjective case is also affine, that is the content of Mazur-Ulam.
– spiralstotheleft
Jul 30 at 12:05




1




1




Examples of non-affine can be found here for the non-surjective case.
– spiralstotheleft
Jul 30 at 12:07





Examples of non-affine can be found here for the non-surjective case.
– spiralstotheleft
Jul 30 at 12:07











2 Answers
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1
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This is the example from J. A. Baker's paper for easy access.



Define $f:mathbbR^2tomathbbR$ by $$f(x,y)=begincasesy,&text if 0leq yleq xtext or xleq yleq 0\x,&text if 0leq xleq ytext or yleq xleq 0\0,&text otherwiseendcases$$



Then $f$ satisfies



  1. $f(tx,ty)=tf(x,y)$


  2. $|f(x,y)-f(u,v)|leqsqrt(x-u)^2+(y-v)^2$


  3. $f$ is not linear


Put in $mathbbR^2$ the usual norm, and $mathbbR^3$ with the norm $$|(x,y,z)|=maxleft(sqrtx^2+y^2,|z|right)$$



Define $F:mathbbR^2tomathbbR^3$ by $F(x,y)=(x,y,f(x,y))$.



Then $F$ is a non-affine isometry.






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    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Take the map $mathbbR to mathbbR, r mapsto |r|$. This certainly preserves the Euclidean norm, but is not even additive, so not linear.



    Another kind of dumb example is the trivial norm taking $0$ to $0$ and anything else to $1$: then any map taking $0_V$ to $0_W$ and $V setminus0$ to $W setminus0$ is norm preserving.



    Or, you could take $V$ to have the trivial norm, and $W$ to be $mathbbC$ with the Euclidean norm. Then any map $V to W$ which maps $0$ to $0$ and maps $V setminus 0$ onto the unit circle is norm preserving. This certainly isn't surjective.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • The distance between $-1$ and $1$ is $2$, but their images by $|cdot|$ have distance $0$.
      – spiralstotheleft
      Jul 30 at 12:16










    • The question says norm-preserving, not distance preserving.
      – Ashwin Iyengar
      Jul 30 at 12:20










    • I incorrectly wrote isometry before.
      – Ashwin Iyengar
      Jul 30 at 12:20










    • I know. But I am pretty sure the question is really about isometries, given that it is tagged as such, and the conclusion of Mazur-Ulam is assumed true, which requires the assumption of isometry, not norm preserving.
      – spiralstotheleft
      Jul 30 at 12:23










    • Fair enough: I'll leave this here anyway.
      – Ashwin Iyengar
      Jul 30 at 12:24










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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    active

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    active

    oldest

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    up vote
    1
    down vote













    This is the example from J. A. Baker's paper for easy access.



    Define $f:mathbbR^2tomathbbR$ by $$f(x,y)=begincasesy,&text if 0leq yleq xtext or xleq yleq 0\x,&text if 0leq xleq ytext or yleq xleq 0\0,&text otherwiseendcases$$



    Then $f$ satisfies



    1. $f(tx,ty)=tf(x,y)$


    2. $|f(x,y)-f(u,v)|leqsqrt(x-u)^2+(y-v)^2$


    3. $f$ is not linear


    Put in $mathbbR^2$ the usual norm, and $mathbbR^3$ with the norm $$|(x,y,z)|=maxleft(sqrtx^2+y^2,|z|right)$$



    Define $F:mathbbR^2tomathbbR^3$ by $F(x,y)=(x,y,f(x,y))$.



    Then $F$ is a non-affine isometry.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      This is the example from J. A. Baker's paper for easy access.



      Define $f:mathbbR^2tomathbbR$ by $$f(x,y)=begincasesy,&text if 0leq yleq xtext or xleq yleq 0\x,&text if 0leq xleq ytext or yleq xleq 0\0,&text otherwiseendcases$$



      Then $f$ satisfies



      1. $f(tx,ty)=tf(x,y)$


      2. $|f(x,y)-f(u,v)|leqsqrt(x-u)^2+(y-v)^2$


      3. $f$ is not linear


      Put in $mathbbR^2$ the usual norm, and $mathbbR^3$ with the norm $$|(x,y,z)|=maxleft(sqrtx^2+y^2,|z|right)$$



      Define $F:mathbbR^2tomathbbR^3$ by $F(x,y)=(x,y,f(x,y))$.



      Then $F$ is a non-affine isometry.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        This is the example from J. A. Baker's paper for easy access.



        Define $f:mathbbR^2tomathbbR$ by $$f(x,y)=begincasesy,&text if 0leq yleq xtext or xleq yleq 0\x,&text if 0leq xleq ytext or yleq xleq 0\0,&text otherwiseendcases$$



        Then $f$ satisfies



        1. $f(tx,ty)=tf(x,y)$


        2. $|f(x,y)-f(u,v)|leqsqrt(x-u)^2+(y-v)^2$


        3. $f$ is not linear


        Put in $mathbbR^2$ the usual norm, and $mathbbR^3$ with the norm $$|(x,y,z)|=maxleft(sqrtx^2+y^2,|z|right)$$



        Define $F:mathbbR^2tomathbbR^3$ by $F(x,y)=(x,y,f(x,y))$.



        Then $F$ is a non-affine isometry.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        This is the example from J. A. Baker's paper for easy access.



        Define $f:mathbbR^2tomathbbR$ by $$f(x,y)=begincasesy,&text if 0leq yleq xtext or xleq yleq 0\x,&text if 0leq xleq ytext or yleq xleq 0\0,&text otherwiseendcases$$



        Then $f$ satisfies



        1. $f(tx,ty)=tf(x,y)$


        2. $|f(x,y)-f(u,v)|leqsqrt(x-u)^2+(y-v)^2$


        3. $f$ is not linear


        Put in $mathbbR^2$ the usual norm, and $mathbbR^3$ with the norm $$|(x,y,z)|=maxleft(sqrtx^2+y^2,|z|right)$$



        Define $F:mathbbR^2tomathbbR^3$ by $F(x,y)=(x,y,f(x,y))$.



        Then $F$ is a non-affine isometry.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Jul 30 at 12:17









        spiralstotheleft

        30516




        30516




















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Take the map $mathbbR to mathbbR, r mapsto |r|$. This certainly preserves the Euclidean norm, but is not even additive, so not linear.



            Another kind of dumb example is the trivial norm taking $0$ to $0$ and anything else to $1$: then any map taking $0_V$ to $0_W$ and $V setminus0$ to $W setminus0$ is norm preserving.



            Or, you could take $V$ to have the trivial norm, and $W$ to be $mathbbC$ with the Euclidean norm. Then any map $V to W$ which maps $0$ to $0$ and maps $V setminus 0$ onto the unit circle is norm preserving. This certainly isn't surjective.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • The distance between $-1$ and $1$ is $2$, but their images by $|cdot|$ have distance $0$.
              – spiralstotheleft
              Jul 30 at 12:16










            • The question says norm-preserving, not distance preserving.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:20










            • I incorrectly wrote isometry before.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:20










            • I know. But I am pretty sure the question is really about isometries, given that it is tagged as such, and the conclusion of Mazur-Ulam is assumed true, which requires the assumption of isometry, not norm preserving.
              – spiralstotheleft
              Jul 30 at 12:23










            • Fair enough: I'll leave this here anyway.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:24














            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Take the map $mathbbR to mathbbR, r mapsto |r|$. This certainly preserves the Euclidean norm, but is not even additive, so not linear.



            Another kind of dumb example is the trivial norm taking $0$ to $0$ and anything else to $1$: then any map taking $0_V$ to $0_W$ and $V setminus0$ to $W setminus0$ is norm preserving.



            Or, you could take $V$ to have the trivial norm, and $W$ to be $mathbbC$ with the Euclidean norm. Then any map $V to W$ which maps $0$ to $0$ and maps $V setminus 0$ onto the unit circle is norm preserving. This certainly isn't surjective.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • The distance between $-1$ and $1$ is $2$, but their images by $|cdot|$ have distance $0$.
              – spiralstotheleft
              Jul 30 at 12:16










            • The question says norm-preserving, not distance preserving.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:20










            • I incorrectly wrote isometry before.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:20










            • I know. But I am pretty sure the question is really about isometries, given that it is tagged as such, and the conclusion of Mazur-Ulam is assumed true, which requires the assumption of isometry, not norm preserving.
              – spiralstotheleft
              Jul 30 at 12:23










            • Fair enough: I'll leave this here anyway.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:24












            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            Take the map $mathbbR to mathbbR, r mapsto |r|$. This certainly preserves the Euclidean norm, but is not even additive, so not linear.



            Another kind of dumb example is the trivial norm taking $0$ to $0$ and anything else to $1$: then any map taking $0_V$ to $0_W$ and $V setminus0$ to $W setminus0$ is norm preserving.



            Or, you could take $V$ to have the trivial norm, and $W$ to be $mathbbC$ with the Euclidean norm. Then any map $V to W$ which maps $0$ to $0$ and maps $V setminus 0$ onto the unit circle is norm preserving. This certainly isn't surjective.






            share|cite|improve this answer















            Take the map $mathbbR to mathbbR, r mapsto |r|$. This certainly preserves the Euclidean norm, but is not even additive, so not linear.



            Another kind of dumb example is the trivial norm taking $0$ to $0$ and anything else to $1$: then any map taking $0_V$ to $0_W$ and $V setminus0$ to $W setminus0$ is norm preserving.



            Or, you could take $V$ to have the trivial norm, and $W$ to be $mathbbC$ with the Euclidean norm. Then any map $V to W$ which maps $0$ to $0$ and maps $V setminus 0$ onto the unit circle is norm preserving. This certainly isn't surjective.







            share|cite|improve this answer















            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jul 30 at 12:19


























            answered Jul 30 at 12:12









            Ashwin Iyengar

            1,082515




            1,082515











            • The distance between $-1$ and $1$ is $2$, but their images by $|cdot|$ have distance $0$.
              – spiralstotheleft
              Jul 30 at 12:16










            • The question says norm-preserving, not distance preserving.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:20










            • I incorrectly wrote isometry before.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:20










            • I know. But I am pretty sure the question is really about isometries, given that it is tagged as such, and the conclusion of Mazur-Ulam is assumed true, which requires the assumption of isometry, not norm preserving.
              – spiralstotheleft
              Jul 30 at 12:23










            • Fair enough: I'll leave this here anyway.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:24
















            • The distance between $-1$ and $1$ is $2$, but their images by $|cdot|$ have distance $0$.
              – spiralstotheleft
              Jul 30 at 12:16










            • The question says norm-preserving, not distance preserving.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:20










            • I incorrectly wrote isometry before.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:20










            • I know. But I am pretty sure the question is really about isometries, given that it is tagged as such, and the conclusion of Mazur-Ulam is assumed true, which requires the assumption of isometry, not norm preserving.
              – spiralstotheleft
              Jul 30 at 12:23










            • Fair enough: I'll leave this here anyway.
              – Ashwin Iyengar
              Jul 30 at 12:24















            The distance between $-1$ and $1$ is $2$, but their images by $|cdot|$ have distance $0$.
            – spiralstotheleft
            Jul 30 at 12:16




            The distance between $-1$ and $1$ is $2$, but their images by $|cdot|$ have distance $0$.
            – spiralstotheleft
            Jul 30 at 12:16












            The question says norm-preserving, not distance preserving.
            – Ashwin Iyengar
            Jul 30 at 12:20




            The question says norm-preserving, not distance preserving.
            – Ashwin Iyengar
            Jul 30 at 12:20












            I incorrectly wrote isometry before.
            – Ashwin Iyengar
            Jul 30 at 12:20




            I incorrectly wrote isometry before.
            – Ashwin Iyengar
            Jul 30 at 12:20












            I know. But I am pretty sure the question is really about isometries, given that it is tagged as such, and the conclusion of Mazur-Ulam is assumed true, which requires the assumption of isometry, not norm preserving.
            – spiralstotheleft
            Jul 30 at 12:23




            I know. But I am pretty sure the question is really about isometries, given that it is tagged as such, and the conclusion of Mazur-Ulam is assumed true, which requires the assumption of isometry, not norm preserving.
            – spiralstotheleft
            Jul 30 at 12:23












            Fair enough: I'll leave this here anyway.
            – Ashwin Iyengar
            Jul 30 at 12:24




            Fair enough: I'll leave this here anyway.
            – Ashwin Iyengar
            Jul 30 at 12:24












             

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