Why if $nabla(u-v)=0$ in $u<v$ imply $ugeq v$?

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$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$;



$u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure;



$|nabla u|_infty<1$, $|nabla v|_infty<1$;



$u,vin C^0,1(overlineA)$ and $u=0$ on $partial A$ and $vleq 0$ on $partial A$.



Why $nabla(u-v)=0$ in the set $u<v$ imply that $ugeq v$?







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  • 1




    Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
    – Mefitico
    Jul 16 at 19:16










  • Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
    – Batominovski
    Jul 16 at 19:19











  • $A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
    – BlackHawk
    Jul 16 at 19:26







  • 1




    I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
    – Calvin Khor
    Jul 16 at 21:05










  • There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
    – Jeff
    Jul 16 at 21:05














up vote
-2
down vote

favorite












$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$;



$u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure;



$|nabla u|_infty<1$, $|nabla v|_infty<1$;



$u,vin C^0,1(overlineA)$ and $u=0$ on $partial A$ and $vleq 0$ on $partial A$.



Why $nabla(u-v)=0$ in the set $u<v$ imply that $ugeq v$?







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 1




    Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
    – Mefitico
    Jul 16 at 19:16










  • Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
    – Batominovski
    Jul 16 at 19:19











  • $A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
    – BlackHawk
    Jul 16 at 19:26







  • 1




    I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
    – Calvin Khor
    Jul 16 at 21:05










  • There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
    – Jeff
    Jul 16 at 21:05












up vote
-2
down vote

favorite









up vote
-2
down vote

favorite











$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$;



$u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure;



$|nabla u|_infty<1$, $|nabla v|_infty<1$;



$u,vin C^0,1(overlineA)$ and $u=0$ on $partial A$ and $vleq 0$ on $partial A$.



Why $nabla(u-v)=0$ in the set $u<v$ imply that $ugeq v$?







share|cite|improve this question













$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$;



$u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure;



$|nabla u|_infty<1$, $|nabla v|_infty<1$;



$u,vin C^0,1(overlineA)$ and $u=0$ on $partial A$ and $vleq 0$ on $partial A$.



Why $nabla(u-v)=0$ in the set $u<v$ imply that $ugeq v$?









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 16 at 21:21
























asked Jul 16 at 19:10









BlackHawk

24




24







  • 1




    Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
    – Mefitico
    Jul 16 at 19:16










  • Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
    – Batominovski
    Jul 16 at 19:19











  • $A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
    – BlackHawk
    Jul 16 at 19:26







  • 1




    I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
    – Calvin Khor
    Jul 16 at 21:05










  • There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
    – Jeff
    Jul 16 at 21:05












  • 1




    Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
    – Mefitico
    Jul 16 at 19:16










  • Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
    – Batominovski
    Jul 16 at 19:19











  • $A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
    – BlackHawk
    Jul 16 at 19:26







  • 1




    I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
    – Calvin Khor
    Jul 16 at 21:05










  • There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
    – Jeff
    Jul 16 at 21:05







1




1




Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
– Mefitico
Jul 16 at 19:16




Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
– Mefitico
Jul 16 at 19:16












Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
– Batominovski
Jul 16 at 19:19





Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
– Batominovski
Jul 16 at 19:19













$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
– BlackHawk
Jul 16 at 19:26





$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
– BlackHawk
Jul 16 at 19:26





1




1




I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
– Calvin Khor
Jul 16 at 21:05




I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
– Calvin Khor
Jul 16 at 21:05












There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
– Jeff
Jul 16 at 21:05




There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
– Jeff
Jul 16 at 21:05










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Write $w=(v-u)_+$, where $t_+=maxt,0$. Then $win C^0,1(barA)$, $nabla w=0$ on $A$ and $wleq 0$ on $partial A$. It follows that $wleq 0$ on $A$.






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    Write $w=(v-u)_+$, where $t_+=maxt,0$. Then $win C^0,1(barA)$, $nabla w=0$ on $A$ and $wleq 0$ on $partial A$. It follows that $wleq 0$ on $A$.






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      Write $w=(v-u)_+$, where $t_+=maxt,0$. Then $win C^0,1(barA)$, $nabla w=0$ on $A$ and $wleq 0$ on $partial A$. It follows that $wleq 0$ on $A$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
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        up vote
        0
        down vote









        Write $w=(v-u)_+$, where $t_+=maxt,0$. Then $win C^0,1(barA)$, $nabla w=0$ on $A$ and $wleq 0$ on $partial A$. It follows that $wleq 0$ on $A$.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        Write $w=(v-u)_+$, where $t_+=maxt,0$. Then $win C^0,1(barA)$, $nabla w=0$ on $A$ and $wleq 0$ on $partial A$. It follows that $wleq 0$ on $A$.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Jul 20 at 17:16









        Jeff

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