Why if $nabla(u-v)=0$ in $u<v$ imply $ugeq v$?
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$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$;
$u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure;
$|nabla u|_infty<1$, $|nabla v|_infty<1$;
$u,vin C^0,1(overlineA)$ and $u=0$ on $partial A$ and $vleq 0$ on $partial A$.
Why $nabla(u-v)=0$ in the set $u<v$ imply that $ugeq v$?
calculus real-analysis partial-derivative
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up vote
-2
down vote
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$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$;
$u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure;
$|nabla u|_infty<1$, $|nabla v|_infty<1$;
$u,vin C^0,1(overlineA)$ and $u=0$ on $partial A$ and $vleq 0$ on $partial A$.
Why $nabla(u-v)=0$ in the set $u<v$ imply that $ugeq v$?
calculus real-analysis partial-derivative
1
Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
– Mefitico
Jul 16 at 19:16
Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
– Batominovski
Jul 16 at 19:19
$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
– BlackHawk
Jul 16 at 19:26
1
I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
– Calvin Khor
Jul 16 at 21:05
There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
– Jeff
Jul 16 at 21:05
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
-2
down vote
favorite
up vote
-2
down vote
favorite
$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$;
$u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure;
$|nabla u|_infty<1$, $|nabla v|_infty<1$;
$u,vin C^0,1(overlineA)$ and $u=0$ on $partial A$ and $vleq 0$ on $partial A$.
Why $nabla(u-v)=0$ in the set $u<v$ imply that $ugeq v$?
calculus real-analysis partial-derivative
$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$;
$u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure;
$|nabla u|_infty<1$, $|nabla v|_infty<1$;
$u,vin C^0,1(overlineA)$ and $u=0$ on $partial A$ and $vleq 0$ on $partial A$.
Why $nabla(u-v)=0$ in the set $u<v$ imply that $ugeq v$?
calculus real-analysis partial-derivative
edited Jul 16 at 21:21
asked Jul 16 at 19:10
BlackHawk
24
24
1
Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
– Mefitico
Jul 16 at 19:16
Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
– Batominovski
Jul 16 at 19:19
$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
– BlackHawk
Jul 16 at 19:26
1
I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
– Calvin Khor
Jul 16 at 21:05
There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
– Jeff
Jul 16 at 21:05
 |Â
show 1 more comment
1
Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
– Mefitico
Jul 16 at 19:16
Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
– Batominovski
Jul 16 at 19:19
$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
– BlackHawk
Jul 16 at 19:26
1
I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
– Calvin Khor
Jul 16 at 21:05
There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
– Jeff
Jul 16 at 21:05
1
1
Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
– Mefitico
Jul 16 at 19:16
Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
– Mefitico
Jul 16 at 19:16
Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
– Batominovski
Jul 16 at 19:19
Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
– Batominovski
Jul 16 at 19:19
$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
– BlackHawk
Jul 16 at 19:26
$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
– BlackHawk
Jul 16 at 19:26
1
1
I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
– Calvin Khor
Jul 16 at 21:05
I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
– Calvin Khor
Jul 16 at 21:05
There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
– Jeff
Jul 16 at 21:05
There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
– Jeff
Jul 16 at 21:05
 |Â
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
1
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oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
Write $w=(v-u)_+$, where $t_+=maxt,0$. Then $win C^0,1(barA)$, $nabla w=0$ on $A$ and $wleq 0$ on $partial A$. It follows that $wleq 0$ on $A$.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
Write $w=(v-u)_+$, where $t_+=maxt,0$. Then $win C^0,1(barA)$, $nabla w=0$ on $A$ and $wleq 0$ on $partial A$. It follows that $wleq 0$ on $A$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
Write $w=(v-u)_+$, where $t_+=maxt,0$. Then $win C^0,1(barA)$, $nabla w=0$ on $A$ and $wleq 0$ on $partial A$. It follows that $wleq 0$ on $A$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Write $w=(v-u)_+$, where $t_+=maxt,0$. Then $win C^0,1(barA)$, $nabla w=0$ on $A$ and $wleq 0$ on $partial A$. It follows that $wleq 0$ on $A$.
Write $w=(v-u)_+$, where $t_+=maxt,0$. Then $win C^0,1(barA)$, $nabla w=0$ on $A$ and $wleq 0$ on $partial A$. It follows that $wleq 0$ on $A$.
answered Jul 20 at 17:16
Jeff
3,094313
3,094313
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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1
Please clarify what is meant with $u<v$. Also, what are $u$ and $v$? Are those functions or variables?
– Mefitico
Jul 16 at 19:16
Assuming that $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x,y,z$ in the $3$-dimensional real space and that $u<v$ is the set of $(x,y,z)$ such that $u(x,y,z)<v(x,y,z)$, what about $u=0$ and $v=1$ (i.e, they are constant functions)?
– Batominovski
Jul 16 at 19:19
$A$ is a bounded domain in $mathbbR^N$ with $partial A$ of class $C^2$; $u,v:overlineAtomathbbR$ - we write $uleq v$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ for a.e. $xin A$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ if $u(x)leq v(x)$ and $u(x)<v(x)$ in a subset of $A$ having positive measure.
– BlackHawk
Jul 16 at 19:26
1
I think then u and v must vanish at the boundary then. @BlackHawk please give the precise space for u and v
– Calvin Khor
Jul 16 at 21:05
There must be more information missing. I can imagine either $u=v$ on the boundary, or $u$ is greater than $v$ somewhere in the domain...
– Jeff
Jul 16 at 21:05