How do you show that $sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!(n+2)=1$?
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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I've been trying to understand the result of this sum:
$$sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!(n+2)=frac12+frac13+frac18+frac130+frac1144+dots=1$$
Could you show me how to obtain 1 as result?
sequences-and-series
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
I've been trying to understand the result of this sum:
$$sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!(n+2)=frac12+frac13+frac18+frac130+frac1144+dots=1$$
Could you show me how to obtain 1 as result?
sequences-and-series
3
It's a telescoping series. Try computing and simplifying the partial sums into a fraction; you might be able to spot the pattern.
– Theo Bendit
Jul 17 at 16:41
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
I've been trying to understand the result of this sum:
$$sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!(n+2)=frac12+frac13+frac18+frac130+frac1144+dots=1$$
Could you show me how to obtain 1 as result?
sequences-and-series
I've been trying to understand the result of this sum:
$$sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!(n+2)=frac12+frac13+frac18+frac130+frac1144+dots=1$$
Could you show me how to obtain 1 as result?
sequences-and-series
edited Jul 18 at 1:49


Parcly Taxel
33.6k136588
33.6k136588
asked Jul 17 at 16:38
André Rasera
314
314
3
It's a telescoping series. Try computing and simplifying the partial sums into a fraction; you might be able to spot the pattern.
– Theo Bendit
Jul 17 at 16:41
add a comment |Â
3
It's a telescoping series. Try computing and simplifying the partial sums into a fraction; you might be able to spot the pattern.
– Theo Bendit
Jul 17 at 16:41
3
3
It's a telescoping series. Try computing and simplifying the partial sums into a fraction; you might be able to spot the pattern.
– Theo Bendit
Jul 17 at 16:41
It's a telescoping series. Try computing and simplifying the partial sums into a fraction; you might be able to spot the pattern.
– Theo Bendit
Jul 17 at 16:41
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
14
down vote
accepted
HINT:
Note that we can write
$$frac1n!(n+2)=frac(n+2)-1(n+2)!=frac1(n+1)!-frac1(n+2)!$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
7
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Hint
Let $f(x)=sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!=exp(x)$.
Note that
$$
sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!(n+2)=sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!int_0^1x^n+1, dx=int_0^1sum _n=0^inftyfracx^n+1n!, dx=int_0^1xexp(x), dx.
$$
Assumes knowledge of calculus.
Can you explain how you obtained the integral form?
– Szeto
Jul 17 at 16:53
1
@Szeto notice that $int_0^1 x^n+1 = frac1n+2 x^n+2 rvert_0^1 = frac1n+2$
– WorldSEnder
Jul 17 at 20:23
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
14
down vote
accepted
HINT:
Note that we can write
$$frac1n!(n+2)=frac(n+2)-1(n+2)!=frac1(n+1)!-frac1(n+2)!$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
14
down vote
accepted
HINT:
Note that we can write
$$frac1n!(n+2)=frac(n+2)-1(n+2)!=frac1(n+1)!-frac1(n+2)!$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
14
down vote
accepted
up vote
14
down vote
accepted
HINT:
Note that we can write
$$frac1n!(n+2)=frac(n+2)-1(n+2)!=frac1(n+1)!-frac1(n+2)!$$
HINT:
Note that we can write
$$frac1n!(n+2)=frac(n+2)-1(n+2)!=frac1(n+1)!-frac1(n+2)!$$
answered Jul 17 at 16:44
Mark Viola
126k1172167
126k1172167
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
7
down vote
Hint
Let $f(x)=sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!=exp(x)$.
Note that
$$
sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!(n+2)=sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!int_0^1x^n+1, dx=int_0^1sum _n=0^inftyfracx^n+1n!, dx=int_0^1xexp(x), dx.
$$
Assumes knowledge of calculus.
Can you explain how you obtained the integral form?
– Szeto
Jul 17 at 16:53
1
@Szeto notice that $int_0^1 x^n+1 = frac1n+2 x^n+2 rvert_0^1 = frac1n+2$
– WorldSEnder
Jul 17 at 20:23
add a comment |Â
up vote
7
down vote
Hint
Let $f(x)=sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!=exp(x)$.
Note that
$$
sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!(n+2)=sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!int_0^1x^n+1, dx=int_0^1sum _n=0^inftyfracx^n+1n!, dx=int_0^1xexp(x), dx.
$$
Assumes knowledge of calculus.
Can you explain how you obtained the integral form?
– Szeto
Jul 17 at 16:53
1
@Szeto notice that $int_0^1 x^n+1 = frac1n+2 x^n+2 rvert_0^1 = frac1n+2$
– WorldSEnder
Jul 17 at 20:23
add a comment |Â
up vote
7
down vote
up vote
7
down vote
Hint
Let $f(x)=sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!=exp(x)$.
Note that
$$
sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!(n+2)=sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!int_0^1x^n+1, dx=int_0^1sum _n=0^inftyfracx^n+1n!, dx=int_0^1xexp(x), dx.
$$
Assumes knowledge of calculus.
Hint
Let $f(x)=sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!=exp(x)$.
Note that
$$
sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!(n+2)=sum_n=0^inftyfrac1n!int_0^1x^n+1, dx=int_0^1sum _n=0^inftyfracx^n+1n!, dx=int_0^1xexp(x), dx.
$$
Assumes knowledge of calculus.
edited Jul 17 at 16:55
answered Jul 17 at 16:44


Foobaz John
18.1k41245
18.1k41245
Can you explain how you obtained the integral form?
– Szeto
Jul 17 at 16:53
1
@Szeto notice that $int_0^1 x^n+1 = frac1n+2 x^n+2 rvert_0^1 = frac1n+2$
– WorldSEnder
Jul 17 at 20:23
add a comment |Â
Can you explain how you obtained the integral form?
– Szeto
Jul 17 at 16:53
1
@Szeto notice that $int_0^1 x^n+1 = frac1n+2 x^n+2 rvert_0^1 = frac1n+2$
– WorldSEnder
Jul 17 at 20:23
Can you explain how you obtained the integral form?
– Szeto
Jul 17 at 16:53
Can you explain how you obtained the integral form?
– Szeto
Jul 17 at 16:53
1
1
@Szeto notice that $int_0^1 x^n+1 = frac1n+2 x^n+2 rvert_0^1 = frac1n+2$
– WorldSEnder
Jul 17 at 20:23
@Szeto notice that $int_0^1 x^n+1 = frac1n+2 x^n+2 rvert_0^1 = frac1n+2$
– WorldSEnder
Jul 17 at 20:23
add a comment |Â
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3
It's a telescoping series. Try computing and simplifying the partial sums into a fraction; you might be able to spot the pattern.
– Theo Bendit
Jul 17 at 16:41